Develop strategies for success - Determine your test readiness

English language - Barbara L. Murphy 2021

Develop strategies for success
Determine your test readiness

CHAPTER 4 Section I of the Exam—The Multiple-Choice Questions

CHAPTER 5 Introduction to the Analysis Essay

CHAPTER 6 Introduction to the Argumentative Essay

CHAPTER 7 Introduction to the Synthesis Essay

CHAPTER 4 Section i of the exam—the multiple-choice questions

IN THIS CHAPTER

Summary: Become comfortable with the multiple-choice section of the exam. If you know what to expect, you can prepare.

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Key Ideas

image Prepare yourself for the multiple-choice section of the exam.

image Review the types of multiple-choice questions asked on the exam.

image Learn strategies for approaching the multiple-choice questions.

image Score yourself by checking the answer key and explanations for the multiple-choice section of the Diagnostic/Master exam.

The multiple-choice section of the exam will be constructed to address each of the following categories among the 45 questions:

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Introduction to the Multiple-Choice Section of the Exam

Multiple choice? Multiple guess? Multiple anxiety? It’s been our experience that the day after the exam finds students bemoaning the difficulties and uncertainties of Section I of the AP English Language and Composition exam.

“It’s unfair.”

“I didn’t understand a word of the third reading.”

“Was that in English?”

“Did you get four Ds in a row for the last reading?”

“I just closed my eyes and pointed.”

Is it really possible to avoid these and other exam woes? We hope that by following along with us in this chapter, you will begin to feel a bit more familiar with the world of multiple-choice questions and, thereby, become a little more comfortable with the multiple-choice section of the exam.

What Is It About the Multiple-Choice Questions That Causes Such Anxiety?

Basically, a multiple-choice literature question is a flawed method of gauging understanding. Why? Because, by its very nature, a multiple-choice question forces you to play a cat-and-mouse game with the test maker, who demands that you concentrate on items that are incorrect before you can choose what is correct. We know, however, that complex literary works have a richness that allows for ambiguity. In the exam mode, you are expected to match someone else’s reading of a work with your choice of answers. This is what often causes the student to feel that the multiple-choice section is unfair. And, perhaps, to a degree, it is. But, get with the program! It’s a necessary evil. So, our advice to you is to accept the difficulties and limitations of Section I and to move on.

This said, it’s wise to develop a strategy for success. Once again, practice is the key to this success.

You’ve answered all types of multiple-choice questions during your career as a student. The test-taking skills you have learned in your social studies, math, and science classes may also apply to this specific situation.

A word in defense of the test makers is in order here. The test is designed to allow you to shine, NOT to be humiliated. To that end, the people who design the multiple-choice questions take their job seriously and take pride in their product. You will not find “cutesy” questions, and they will not play games with you. What they will do is present several valid options in response to a challenging and appropriate question. These questions are designed to separate the knowledgeable, perceptive, and thoughtful reader from the superficial and impulsive one.

“You know, when my teacher required us to make up multiple-choice questions that came from the AP prompts we wrote essays on, I really became more confident about how to answer these types of questions on the exam.”

—Samantha T., AP student

What Should I Expect in Section I?

For this first section of the AP English Language and Composition exam, you are allotted 1 hour to answer 45 objective questions on three to five prose passages. The selections come from works of nonfiction and are from different time periods, of different styles, and of different purposes. In other words, you will not find two essays by Thoreau in the multiple-choice section of the same test.

These are NOT easy readings. They are representative of the college-level work you have been doing throughout the year.

The multiple choice section of the exam is constructed around major two categories: Reading and Writing. Each of these two categories will include questions related to the rhetorical situation, claims and evidence, reasoning and organization, and style.

Reading questions will expect you to:

Clarify how choices relate to the rhetorical situation

Interpret claims and evidence as related to the thesis

Interpret the line of reasoning presented in the argument

Infer/conclude how stylistic elements relate to the argument’s purpose

Writing questions will expect you to:

Demonstrate your ability to make choices in a text in response to the rhetorical situation

Choose relevant evidence in developing a line of reasoning

Evaluate organization and commentary when trying to strengthen the line of reasoning

Decide which words and/or composition elements can be used to strengthen an argument

You will be expected to:

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✵ follow sophisticated syntax;

✵ respond to diction;

✵ be comfortable with upper-level vocabulary;

✵ be familiar with rhetorical terminology;

✵ make inferences;

✵ be sensitive to irony and tone;

✵ recognize components of organization and style;

✵ be familiar with modes of discourse and rhetorical strategies; and

✵ recognize how information contained in citations contributes to the author’s purpose.

THE GOOD NEWS IS . . . the selection is self-contained. If it is about the Irish Potato Famine, you will NOT be at a disadvantage if you know nothing about Irish history. Frequently, there will be biblical references in a selection. This is especially true of works from an earlier time period. You are expected to be aware of basic allusions to biblical and mythological works often found in literary texts, but the passage will never require you to have any particular religious background.

DO NOT LET THE SUBJECT MATTER OF A PASSAGE THROW YOU. Strong analytical skills will work on any passage.

“Even though it’s time-consuming, I find it invaluable to take class time to accurately simulate exam conditions.”

—Cynthia N., AP teacher

How Should I Begin to Work with Section I?

Take no more than a minute and thumb through the exam, looking for the following:

✵ The length of the selections

✵ The time periods or writing styles, if you can recognize them

✵ The number of questions asked

✵ A quick idea of the type of questions

This brief skimming of the test will put your mind into gear, because you will be aware of what is expected of you.

How Should I Proceed Through This Section of the Exam?

Timing is important. Always maintain an awareness of the time. Wear a watch. (Some students like to put it directly in front of them on the desk.) Remember, this is not your first encounter with the multiple-choice section of the test. You’ve probably been practicing timed exams in class; in addition, this book provides you with three timed experiences. We’re sure you will notice improvements as you progress through the timed practice activities.

Depending on the particular passage, you may take less or more time on a particular passage, but know when to move on. The test DOES NOT become more difficult as it progresses; therefore, you will want to give yourself the opportunity to answer each set of questions.

Work at a pace of about one question per minute. Every question is worth the same number of points, so don’t get bogged down on those that involve multiple tasks. Don’t panic if a question is beyond you. Remember, it will probably be beyond a great number of the other students taking the exam. There has to be a bar that determines the 5s and 4s for this exam. Just do your best.

Reading the text carefully is a must. Begin at the beginning and work your way through.

Most people read just with their eyes. We want you to slow down and to read with your senses of sight, sound, and touch.

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✵ Underline, circle, and annotate the text.

✵ Read closely, paying attention to punctuation, syntax, diction, pacing, and organization.

✵ Read as if you were reading the passage aloud to an audience, emphasizing meaning and intent.

✵ As corny as it may seem, hear those words in your head.

✵ This technique may seem childish, but it works. Using your finger as a pointer, underscore the line as you are reading it aloud in your head. This forces you to slow down and to really notice the text. This will be helpful when you have to refer to the passage.

✵ Use all of the information given to you about the passage, such as title, author, date of publication, and footnotes.

✵ Be aware of organizational and rhetorical devices and techniques.

✵ Quickly skim the questions stems, ignoring the choices. This will give you an idea as to what is expected of you as a reader of the given text.

✵ Be aware of thematic lines and be sensitive to details that could be material for multiple-choice questions.

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You can practice these techniques anytime. Take any work and read it aloud. Time yourself. A good rate is about 1½ minutes per page.

Types of Multiple-Choice Questions

Is the Structure the Same for All of the Multiple-Choice Questions?

No. There are several basic patterns that the AP test makers employ. These include:

1. The straightforward question.

✵ The passage is an example of

C. a contrast/comparison essay

✵ The pronoun “it” refers to

B. his gait

2. The question that refers you to specific lines and asks you to draw a conclusion or interpret.

✵ Lines 52—57 serve to

A. reinforce the author’s thesis

3. The ALL . . . EXCEPT question requires more time, because it demands that you consider every possibility.

✵ The AP English Language and Composition exam is all of the following except

A. It is given in May of each year.

B. It is open to high school seniors.

C. It is published in the New York Times.

D. It is used as a qualifier for college credit.

E. It is a 3-hour test.

4. The question that asks you to make an inference or to abstract a concept not directly stated in the passage.

✵ In “Letter from a Birmingham Jail,” the reader can infer that the speaker is

E. religious

5. The question related to the rhetorical situation: This question deals with context, purpose, audience.

✵ Which of the following is the major strategy the author uses to support the thesis of this passage?

This is the type of question that requires you to consider the rhetorical situation of the passage and HOW the writer addresses it. For example: Which of the following is not an assumption the author makes about the audience?

6. The question that asks you to act in the role of the writer during the writing process.

✵ The writer is considering adding the following sentence to the end of paragraph 5:

Driving more defensively, I move from the fast lane into the middle lane.

Should the writer make this revision?

A. Yes, because the reader wants to know what the driver does next.

B. No, because it is off topic.

C. No, because it doesn’t really relate to the topic sentence of the paragraph.

D. Yes. This sentence adds to the reader’s understanding of the writer.

E. No. This sentence adds nothing to the information in the paragraph and begs for an answer to what happens when the driver moves into the middle lane.

7. The question that asks you to become involved int the revision process.

✵ Which item could most appropriately be added to end the series in paragraph 2 beginning with, My ancestors for over a hundred planted the sugarcane here . . .

A. and, when it was time, profited nothing from it.

B. and, when it was time, left the plantation to pursue new lives.

C. and, when it was time, were buried next to those fields.

D. and, when it was time, bought their freedom.

E. and, when it was time, reseeded the land for new crops.

What Kinds of Questions Should I Expect on the Exam?

The multiple-choice questions center on form and content. Naturally, the test makers are assessing your understanding of the meaning of the selection as well as your ability to draw inferences and perceive implications based on the given work. They also want to know if you understand HOW an author develops his or her ideas, and CHOICES the author could make when revising the text.

The questions, therefore, will be factual, technical, analytical, and inferential. The brief chart below illustrates the types of key words/phrases in these four categories you can expect to encounter.

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Note: DO NOT MEMORIZE THESE TABLES. Likewise, do not panic if a word or phrase is not familiar to you. You may or may not encounter any or all of these words or phrases on any given exam. You can, however, count on meeting up with many of these in our practice exams in this book.

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A WORD ABOUT JARGON: Jargon refers to words unique to a specific subject. A common language is important for communication, and there must be agreement on the basic meanings of terms. Although it is important to know the universal language of a subject, it is also important that you NOT limit the scope of your thinking to a brief definition. All of the terms used in the above chart are categorized only for easy reference. They also work in many other contexts. In other words, THINK OUTSIDE OF THE BOX.

Scoring the Multiple-Choice Section

How Does the Scoring of the Multiple-Choice Section Work?

Multiple-choice scores are based solely on the number of questions answered correctly. Therefore, it is to your advantage to answer ALL of the multiple-choice questions. Your chances of guessing the correct answer improve if you skillfully apply the process of elimination to narrow the choices.

Strategies for Answering the Multiple-Choice Questions

As observed earlier, you’ve been answering multiple-choice questions most of your academic life, and you’ve probably figured out ways to deal with them. There may, however, be some points you have not considered that will be helpful for this particular exam.

“One of my biggest challenges in preparing for the exam was to learn not to jump to conclusions when I was doing the multiple-choice questions.”

—Samantha S., AP student

General Guidelines

✵ Work in order. We like this approach for several reasons:

— It’s clear.

— You will not lose your place on the scan sheet.

— There may be a logic to working sequentially which will help you to answer previous questions. BUT, this is your call. If you are more comfortable moving around the exam, do so.

✵ Write on the exam booklet. Mark it up. Make it yours. Interact with the test.

✵ Do not spend too much time on any one question.

✵ Do not be misled by the length or appearance of a selection. There is no correlation between this and the difficulty of the questions.

✵ Don’t fight the question or the passage. You may know other information about the subject of the text or a question. It’s irrelevant. Work within the given context.

✵ Consider all the choices in a given question. This will guard against your jumping to a false conclusion. It helps you to slow down and to look closely at each possibility. You may find that your first choice was not the best or most appropriate one.

✵ Maintain an open mind as you answer subsequent questions in a series. Sometimes a later question will contradict an answer to a previous one. Reconsider both. Likewise, even the phrasing of a question may point to an answer in a previous question.

✵ Remember that all parts of an answer must be correct.

✵ When in doubt, go back to the text.

Specific Techniques

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Process of Elimination—This is the primary tool, except for direct knowledge of the answer.

1. Read the five choices.

2. If no choice immediately strikes you as correct, you can

— eliminate any which are obviously wrong;

— eliminate those choices which are too narrow or too broad;

— eliminate illogical choices;

— eliminate answers which are synonymous;

— eliminate answers which cancel each other out.

3. If two answers are close,

— find the one general enough to contain all aspects of the question

OR

— find the one limited enough to be the detail the question is seeking.

Substitution/Fill In the Blank

1. Rephrase the question, leaving a blank where the answer should go.

2. Use each of the choices to fill in the blank until you find the one that is the best fit.

Using Context

1. Use this technique when the question directs you to specific lines, words, or phrases.

2. Locate the given word, phrase, or sentence and read the sentence before and after the section of the text to which the question refers. Often this provides the information or clues you need to make your choice.

Anticipation

As you read the passage for the first time, mark any details and ideas that you would ask a question about. You may second-guess the test makers this way.

Intuition/The Educated Guess

You have a wealth of skills and knowledge in your language and composition subconscious. A question or a choice may trigger a “remembrance of things past.” This can be the basis for your educated guess. Have the confidence to use the educated guess as a valid technique. Trust your own resources.

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A Survival Plan

If time is running out and you haven’t finished the last selection,

1. Scan the remaining questions and look for:

— the shortest questions; and/or

— the questions that point you to a line.

These two types of questions are relatively easy to work with and to verify.

2. Look for specific detail/definition questions.

3. Look for self-contained questions.

“The jail sentence was a bitter winter for his plan” is an example of

C. an analogy.

You did not have to go to the passage to answer this question.

Some Thoughts About Guessing

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You can’t be hurt by making educated guesses based on a careful reading of the selection. Be smart. Understand that you need to come to this exam well prepared. You must have a foundation of knowledge and skills. You cannot guess through the entire exam and expect to do well.

This is not Lotto. This book is not about how to “beat the exam.” We want to maximize the skills you already have. There is an inherent integrity in this exam and your participation in it. With this in mind, when there is no other direction open to you, it is perfectly fine to make an educated guess.

Is There Anything Special I Should Know About Preparing for the Multiple-Choice Questions?

After you have finished with the Diagnostic/Master exam, you will be familiar with the format and types of questions asked on the AP English Language and Composition exam. However, just practicing answering multiple-choice questions on specific works will not give you a complete understanding of this questioning process. We suggest the following to hone your multiple-choice skills with prose multiple-choice questions.

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✵ Choose a passage from a full-length prose work that you have read before or a self-contained essay, plus choose another that contains documentation/citations. (Take a close look at your science and social studies texts for examples.)

✵ Read the selection a couple of times and create several multiple-choice questions about specific sections of the selection.

— Make certain the section is self-contained and complex.

— Choose a speech, a philosophical passage, an essay, an editorial, a letter, a preface or epilogue, a significant passage from a chapter, or a news article.

✵ Refer to the chart given earlier in this chapter for suggested language and type.

✵ Administer your miniquiz to a classmate, study group, or class.

✵ Evaluate your results.

✵ Repeat this process through several different works during your preparation for the exam. The selections can certainly come from those you are studying in class.

✵ Create a variety of question types.

Here’s What Should Happen as a Result of Your Using This Process

✵ Your expectation level for the selections in the actual test will be more realistic.

✵ You will become familiar with the language of multiple-choice questions.

✵ Your understanding of the process of choosing answers will be heightened.

✵ Questions you write that you find less than satisfactory will trigger your analytical skills as you attempt to figure out “what went wrong.”

✵ Your understanding of terminology will become more accurate.

✵ BONUS: If you continue to do this work throughout your preparation for the AP exam, you will have created a mental storehouse of literary and analytical information. So, when you are presented with an analytical or argumentative essay in Section II, you will have an extra resource at your disposal.

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You might want to utilize this process throughout the year with selections studied in and out of class and keep track of your progress. See the Bibliography at the back of this book.

The Time Is at Hand

It is now your turn to try the Diagnostic/Master exam, Section I.

Do this section in ONE sitting. Time yourself!

Be honest with yourself when you score your answers.

Note: If the 1 hour passes before you have a chance to finish all of the questions, stop where you are and score what you have done up to this point. Afterward, complete the remaining parts of the section, but do not count it as part of your score.

When you have completed all of the multiple-choice questions in this diagnostic exam, carefully look at the explanations of the answers. Spend time here and assess which types of questions are giving you trouble. Use this book to learn from your mistakes.

ANSWER SHEET FOR DIAGNOSTIC MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

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I did Images did not Images finish all the questions in the allotted 1 hour.

I had _______ correct answers. I had _______ incorrect answers. I left _______ blank.

I have carefully reviewed the explanations of the answers, and I think I need to work on the following types of questions:

The current AP English Language exam divides the multiple choice section of the exam into “Reading” and “Writing” categories with separate texts for each type. However, for our purposes, each of the texts in the practice exam contains both “Reading” and “Writing” questions.

DIAGNOSTIC/MASTER EXAM ADVANCED PLACEMENT ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND COMPOSITION

Section I

The multiple-choice section of the exam will have 45 questions.

✵ 20—25 will be related to close reading/analysis.

✵ 20—25 will be related to the rhetorical situation.

Total Time—1 hour

Carefully read the following passages and answer the accompanying questions.

Questions 1—12 are based on the following passage from “Samuel Johnson on Pope,” which appeared in The Lives of the English Poets (1779—1781).

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1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. provide a character sketch of Pope

B. examine the principles of poetic style

C. criticize Dryden

D. present a model for future poets

E. create an opportunity for the writer to show off his own skills

2. The passage discusses a contrast among all of the following except:

A. prose and poetry

B. Pope and Dryden

C. body and mind

D. poverty and wealth

E. body and soul

3. The thesis is located in line(s)

A. 1

B. 7—8

C. 11

D. 20—21

E. 36—37

4. The character of Pope is developed by all of the following except:

A. examples

B. comparison

C. contrast

D. satire

E. description

5. According to the passage, Pope and Dryden are

A. rivals

B. equally intelligent

C. outdated

D. equally physically attractive

E. in debt

6. From the passage, the reader may infer that Pope

A. was extravagant

B. was a man of the people

C. was jealous of Dryden

D. had a desire to be popular

E. had a bitter, satirical nature

7. “If the flights” (35) means

A. Pope’s writing will outlive Dryden’s

B. both Pope and Dryden are equal

C. Pope is not idealistic

D. Pope is more wordy

E. Pope is not as bright as Dryden

8. Lines 20—24 indicate that Dryden was what type of writer?

A. one who labored over his thoughts

B. one who wrote only for himself

C. one who wrote only for the critics

D. one who wrote to please Pope

E. one who did not revise

9. The tone of the passage is

A. informal and affectionate

B. formal and objective

C. condescending and paternalistic

D. laudatory and reverent

E. critical and negative

10. In the context of the passage, “until he had nothing left to be forgiven” (29) means

A. Pope outraged his readers

B. Pope suffered from writer’s block

C. Pope exhausted his subject matter

D. Pope’s prose was revised to perfection

E. Pope cared about the opinions of his readers

11. “Shaven” and “leveled” in line 34 indicate that Pope’s style of writing was

A. natural

B. richly ornamented

C. highly controlled

D. mechanical

E. analytical

12. Based on a close reading of the final paragraph of the passage, the reader could infer that the author

A. looks on both writers equally

B. prefers the work of Pope

C. sees the two writers as inferior to his own writing style

D. indicates no preference

E. prefers the work of Dryden

Questions 13—23 are based on the following excerpt from Charlotte Perkins Gilman’s “Politics and Warfare,” which appears in The Man-Made World: Our Androcentric Culture (1911).

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13. The author’s main purpose in the passage is to

A. argue for women being drafted

B. criticize colonialism

C. present a pacifist philosophy

D. criticize the male-dominated society

E. protest tariffs

14. In paragraph 2, the author maintains that men support their position on equality for women based upon which of the following approaches?

A. begging the question

B. a syllogism using a faulty premise

C. an appeal to emotion

D. circular reasoning

E. an ad hoc argument

15. Using textual clues, one can conclude that “androcentric” most probably means

A. robot-centered

B. world-centered

C. female-centered

D. self-centered

E. male-centered

16. In paragraph 4, “increasingly injurious as society progresses” is reinforced by all of the following except:

A. “ill effects already touched on” [paragraph 4]

B. “active war” [paragraph 4]

C. “weaker nations to be ’conquered’ and ’annexed’” [paragraph 5]

D. “illegitimate expenses of fighting” [paragraph 6]

E. “Women do not understand politics” [paragraph 8]

17. In addition to indicating a direct quotation, the author uses quotation marks to indicate

A. the jargon of politics and warfare

B. the coining of a phrase

C. a definition

D. the author’s scholarship

E. that the author does not take responsibility for her words

18. According to the author, men view the primary purpose of government to be

A. educating the people

B. solving the “mass of public problems”

C. obtaining as much power as possible

D. economics

E. health

19. The argument shifts from a discussion of warfare to a discussion of politics in the first sentence of which of the following paragraphs?

A. paragraph 4

B. paragraph 5

C. paragraph 6

D. paragraph 7

E. paragraph 9

20. The tone of the passage is best described as

A. ambivalent

B. reverent

C. condescending

D. accusatory

E. indifferent

21. To present her argument, Gilman primarily uses which of the following rhetorical strategies?

A. process

B. definition

C. cause and effect

D. narration

E. description

Questions 22—30 are based on a film by Ernest J. Gaines, author of The Autobiography of Miss Jane Pittman and A Lesson Before Dying, who is part of the fifth generation of his family to be born on the Riverlake plantation. This is his introduction to a short film titled An Obsession, which is about a cemetery on the Riverlake plantation which he bought and is dedicated to preserving.

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22. The exigence for Gaines’s passage is

A. the need for funding to further the author’s cause

B. the possibility that the author may lose his plantation

C. the growing possibility that the unmarked graves of slaves and other plantation workers may be lost to developers and farmers

D. a protest movement to save unmarked graves of slaves

E. the 400th anniversary of the first slave being brought into the Virginia colony

23. The function of the first paragraph is to

A. establish the setting of the issue Gaines wishes to address

B. begin developing the historical background of the location

C. build a contrast between the accepted importance of the plantation to the lack of care paid to the cemetery

D. emphasize that the cemetery has no name that might protect it

E. develop the personal connection the author has with the location

24. Which item could most appropriately be added to end the series in paragraph 2 beginning with, My ancestors for over a hundred years planted the sugarcane here . . .

A. and, when it was time, profited nothing from it

B. and, when it was time, left the plantation to pursue new lives

C. and, when it was time, were buried next to those fields

D. and, when it was time, bought their freedom

E. and, when it was time, reseeded the land for new crops

25. The thesis is located in which paragraph?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

26. Which of the following is the major rhetorical strategy the author uses to support his thesis?

A. appeal to emotions through historical anecdotes

B. appeal to the audience’s sense of guilt

C. appeal to author’s credibility through personal anecdotes

D. appeal to reason through an overview of legal issues

E. appeal to the audience’s sense of historical precedence

27. Which of the following sentences could best be added to the end of paragraph 4?

A. The destruction of these cemeteries across the nation is an example of systematic racism.

B. It is urgent that we continue to speak up for the people buried in these cemeteries until we can find a lasting way to protect them.

C. The lack of empathy on the part of these landowners needs to be punished in the civil court system.

D. I speak to all of you today in the hopes that you will support our efforts to save these sites by contacting your local states representatives.

E. It is necessary that permanent monuments are erected in these rural cemeteries to acknowledge the forgotten.

28. Which of the following best describes the author’s purpose in including the following direct quotation in paragraph 5?

The interviewer asked me what would I like on my headstone and I said,“To lie with those who have no marks.”

A. adds needed pacing

B. presents an ironic counterbalance to the direct quotation in paragraph 4

C. presents an illustration of the thesis

D. appeals to the emotions of the audience

E. emphasizes the author’s reportorial approach to his subject

29. The rhetorical purpose of the set of dashes used in the last sentence is to

A. supply an aside to the audience

B. provide an overview of the author’s literary works

C. provide a continuation of the list begun at the start of this sentence

D. emphasize what is stated in the sentence in the last paragraph beginning with Not only did they encourage me . . .

E. enumerate what their lives consisted of

30. Carefully read the following two sentences:

I’ve said many times before that my novels, my short stories, are just continuations of the letters that I started writing for them some fifty years ago, and since I’ve tried to say something about their lives on paper—their joy, their sorrows, their love, their fears, their pride, their compassion—I think it is only my duty now to do as much as I can to see that they lie in peace forever. (Original sentence)

I’ve said many times before that my novels, my short stories, are just continuations of the letters that I started writing for them some fifty years ago, and since I’ve tried to say something about their lives on paper—their joy, their sorrows, their love, their fears, their pride, their compassion—It is my duty to see that they lie in peace forever. (A second version)

What does the original imply that the second version does not?

A. The author will continue to write as much and as often as he can to benefit his ancestor’s memories.

B. The author will take his story to audiences across the Nation.

C. The author is thinking about running for public office to secure the rights of his Louisiana ancestors.

D. Instead of writing for and about his ancestors, the author will act on their behalf.

E. The author is retiring from writing and will work solely to support the Riverlake Plantation cemetery.

Questions 31—41 are related to a 2007 essay written in response to a survey and commentary about what constitutes healthy eating.

To Eat or Not to Eat Healthy Foods

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31. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the fourth paragraph to provide further information.

For instance, Thomas Walsh, the CEO of the Eat Healthy; Live Longer Institute, travels throughout the United States advocating for healthy eating.

Where would this sentence best be placed?

A. before the first sentence

B. after the second sentence

C. before the fourth sentence

D. after the fourth sentence

E. after the last sentence

32. The author uses which major rhetorical appeal to support and develop the thesis?

A. appeal of reason

B. appeal to emotions

C. appeal to authority

D. appeal to timeliness and opportunity

E. appeal to commonality

33. What is the rhetorical effect of using equal signs in the last sentence of paragraph 3?

A. continuation of the “mathematical” image

B. appeal to those who are convinced when confronted with cause and effect

C. a sense of irony

D. a sense of inevitability

E. a sense of balance

34. The author’s purpose can best be stated as

A. advocating for a limit on the consumption of red meat

B. highlighting some of the difficulties related to food and the environment

C. criticizing those who recommend limiting meat production

D. reviewing the current state of research about food production and its effect on the environment

E. defending those who favor high taxes on both those who produce meat and those who consume it.

35. In context, which choice best combines the last two sentences in paragraph 4?

A. No change

B. To save billions of dollars and “millions of lives,” Mark Bittman recommends taxing high-fat and high-calorie processed foods.

C. According to Mark Bittman and many other food experts, one way to save billions of dollars and “millions of lives” is to tax high-fat and high-calorie processed food.

D. Saving billions of dollars and saving “millions of lives,” would be the major result of taxing high-fat and high-calorie processed food, argues Mark Bittman and many other food experts.

E. To encourage people to avoid high-fat, and high-calorie processed foods, Mark Bittman and other healthy food advocate taxing these foods, which will save billions of dollars in health care and save “millions of lives.”

36. The logic of the fourth paragraph would be better served if the sentence beginning with As previously mentioned, red meat . . . were placed

A. at the beginning of the paragraph, before the sentence beginning with And, . . .

B. before the last sentence beginning with He sees it . . .

C. after the first sentence

D. before the next to last sentence beginning with Mark Bittman . . .

E. after the last sentence

37. The writer wants to more clearly introduce the thesis of the essay in the first paragraph. Which of the following versions of the first sentence beginning with My friends and I . . . would best serve that purpose?

A. No change

B. My friends and I recently saw a Reuters/Ipsos online poll.

C. My friends and I are like most Americans when it comes to eating healthy.

D. A recent Reuters/Ipsos poll indicates Americans are looking to government to solve the questions revolving around healthy eating.

E. The results of a recent Reuters/Ipsos online poll about attitudes toward eating healthy should be of interest to us all.

38. In the last sentence of the first paragraph, the writer hopes to lead the reader into an examination of some of the recent research and recommendations of experts and organizations connected to healthy eating and to the environment. Which version of this last sentence best accomplishes this goal?

A. No change

B. This question and others related to healthy eating and the environment have been the subject of many research projects and recommendations.

C. Here is what some of the experts in healthy eating recommend.

D. It’s difficult to come to any conclusion about healthy eating and the environment.

E. Research seems to favor the government solving this problem.

39. The obvious exigence for this essay is

A. an assigned writing prompt

B. a concern for the environment

C. fear of eating the wrong foods

D. anger with climate change

E. desire to change people’s attitude toward healthy eating

40. Which of the following does the writer NOT assume about the audience?

A. They have eaten fast food.

B. They have had experience with paying taxes.

C. They have a working knowledge of environmental science.

D. They have an interest in protecting the environment.

E. They have an interest in eating healthy.

41. The last sentence of the essay beginning with Right now, I’m . . . indicates to the reader that the writer most probably

A. will find a compromise when dealing with food choices and their effects on the environment

B. is confused about what to do about food choices and the environment

C. will keep in mind the relationship between food choices and their effects on the environment when grocery shopping or eating out

D. will advocate for corporations to become more active in protecting the environment

E. will advocate for government taking a larger role in addressing this situation

Questions 42—45 are based on the following letter to the editor published in Newsday on August 23, 2019.

History Evolves as Scholars Learn More

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This is a letter to the editor, and by definition it is brief. If the author wished to further develop this into an essay of around 500—800 words, he might consider the following:

42. The location of the thesis of this letter is

A. all of paragraph one

B. the last sentence of paragraph 2

C. the first sentence of paragraph 3

D. he last sentence of paragraph 4

E. all of the last paragraph

43. The writer is considering placing the last sentence someplace else in the letter. Considering the rhetorical situation, including the exigence, what would be the best placement?

A. as is

B. at the very beginning

C. before paragraph 2

D. before paragraph 3

E. before paragraph 4

44. The writer wants an effective transition from the introductory paragraph to the main idea of the text. Which of the following would best achieve this goal?

A. Leave as is.

B. One critic is a contributing editor to Reason magazine.

C. A recent edition of this newspaper published one of these conservative opinions.

D. One of these conservative writers is Newsday columnist Cathy Young who writes that . . . [sentence continues as in the original].

E. I read one of these opinions in a recent edition of this newspaper.

45. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the text to provide additional information.

It should be noted that “1619 Project” was published to correspond with the 400th anniversary of the arrival of the first African slaves in Jamestown, the first English settlement in North America.

Where would the sentence best be placed?

A. the beginning of the first paragraph

B. the end of the first paragraph

C. the beginning of the second paragraph

D. the end of the second paragraph

E. the end of the last paragraph

Answer key

1. A

2. E

3. B

4. D

5. B

6. E

7. B

8. E

9. A

10. D

11. C

12. B

13. D

14. B

15. A

16. E

17. E

18. C

19. C

20. D

21. C

22. C

23. A

24. C

25. D

26. A

27. B

28. B

29. E

30. D

31. B

32. C

33. A

34. B

35. C

36. D

37. E

38. B

39. A

40. C

41. C

42. C

43. A

44. D

45. B

Explanations of Answers to the Multiple-Choice Questions

Explanations to the Samuel Johnson Essay

1. A. Although references to poetic style and to Dryden are contained in the passage, they are included to illuminate the character of Pope. Each of the details and examples in the essay is used to further the characterization of Pope.

2. E. No references to body versus soul are in the passage. We do find references to both the prose and the poetry of Pope and Dryden. We are told of Pope’s monetary concerns, and we can infer the contrast between Pope’s broken body and healthy mind.

3. B. This two-sentence paragraph provides an introduction to the topic (Pope), takes a position about Pope, and indicates the organization of the presentation.

4. D. A careful reading of this passage allows you to locate each of the devices, except satire.

5. B. Lines 20—21 clearly state that the two men were equally gifted.

6. E. Lines 9 and 10 tell the reader that Pope’s humor was condescending. Lines 14—15 allude to his use of ridicule, and the reader may infer that these characteristics were carried over into Pope’s writing.

7. B. The author sets up several comparisons between Dryden and Pope. Each of these comparisons has Pope the better of the two.

8. E. Carefully read lines 23 and 24 and you will see a direct correlation between those lines and choice E.

9. A. This is a fairly straightforward interpretation of a figurative line. The idea of “long on the wing” naturally leads the reader to think of endurance.

10. D. If you go to lines 25—29, you will see that Pope demanded perfection of himself and his writing. This characteristic is further extended with the clause in line 29.

11. C. Both words indicate a practiced, continuous, and extreme control of the work at hand. Even the “velvet of the lawn” indicates a tightness, a smoothness, and a richness of form and content.

12. B. If it were a contest, Pope would be declared the winner by Johnson. A close reading of both the structure and the content of the paragraph leads the reader to Pope. When discussing Dryden and Pope, Pope has the last work. This allows Pope to linger in the reader’s mind. “Frequent” with Dryden and “perpetual” with Pope is another indication of Samuel Johnson’s preference.

Explanations to the Gilman Essay

13. D. Although Gilman touches upon each of the choices in the passage, A, B, C, and E are details used to support her argument that a man-managed nation is an imperfect culture.

14. B. The question requires the student to be familiar with methods of logical reasoning and logical fallacies. Gilman presents the syllogism men use to deny women the right to vote:

Those who fight may vote.Women do not fight.Therefore, women may not vote.

“Those” is understood to be men. The first premise is incorrect, as is the second premise. This being the case, the conclusion is invalid.

15. A. Most readers expect quotations to be used to indicate a direct quotation or specific titles of works. However, there are other uses for these bits of punctuation. One is to set off specific words or phrases used by others in a given context. Here, Gilman is making direct reference to the words employed by society’s male leadership.

16. E. Because the argument of the passage is to criticize the aggressive nature of politics in a male-managed society and to point out the results of combining politics and warfare, the question demands details that support the idea of aggression being detrimental to society. The only choice that does not reflect this idea is E.

17. E. Paragraph 4 is a listing of the ill-effects of the supremacy of power/might, and each of the other cited paragraphs illustrates this claim. All except for E, which is not an example of that idea.

18. C. Look carefully at the second paragraph to see the ranking Gilman sets up as the male-centered priorities. The only one ranked over the others is fighting and the ability to kill.

19. C. Syntactically, the phrase, “Similarly in politics” is an indicator that a comparison is being drawn between what came before and what comes after. No other phrase does this.

20. D. Because this is an argumentative selection, the author is expected to take a position on an issue. Because of this, the choices of “ambivalent” and “indifferent” are immediately eliminated. Keeping in mind the diction of the piece, you can see that “reverent” and “condescending” are also inappropriate.

21. C. If you read the passage carefully, you cannot avoid the cause-and-effect sequencing throughout the excerpt. Look at paragraphs 2, 3, 4, 6, and the last. Remember that an author can use many different techniques in the same work, but only one will be predominant, and that strategy is what reinforces the author’s purpose.

The Gaines Passage

22. C. Exigence identifies what compelled the author to compose the given text, in other words, the immediate cause for this writing/speaking/visual event. Even though each of the items is related to the general topic, only C cites the reason for this particular text at this particular time.

23. A. This first paragraph provides the audience with a context and background in which Gaines locates a part of his past, his heritage. Each of the other choices is referenced throughout the rest of the passage.

24. C. Given that the topic of this paragraph is the work and death life cycle of the plantation workers, introducing ideas related to profit, freedom, and renewed farming would not be logical. Only C makes a further comment on that life cycle.

25. D. The first sentence in paragraph 4 (D) presents the subject of the text, Gaines’s position on the topic, and the organizational pattern of the passage. The other choices are separate claims made that are related to the development of the thesis.

26. A. Each of the choices plays a role in the development of the thesis, but the MAJOR rhetorical strategy is found in choice A. It cites the appeal to emotions AND briefly states how that is accomplished. Choice B only mentions a specific emotion without comment. Choice C only points to personal anecdotes. Choices D and E are also details without that sense of says/does.

27. B. The subject of paragraph 4 is the attempts at preserving the plantation. Choice B is the only sentence that includes Gaines and his wife, plus the cause they support. Each of the other choices addresses only one part of the equation or goes off in another direction.

28. B. Paragraph 4 ends with the direct quotation, “We didn’t know that one [cemetery] was there.” In other words, “Out of sight, out of mind.” With his saying he wants his headstone to reference those whom no one can name, Gaines gives recognition to those who are unknown. A is the only choice that indicates this idea.

29. E. These dashes follow one of the prescribed uses of this punctuation mark. The dashes in this instance indicate emphasis on the scope of the lives of Gaines’s ancestors. E is the only choice that cites this.

30. D. . . . I think it is only my duty now to do as much as I can to see that they lie in peace forever. Notice that in the second version the words only and now are omitted as well as the phrase do as much as I can. The audience can infer that Gaines sees his previous duty of writing for and about his ancestors as completed. It is time to actively work for the preservation of the cemetery. D addresses both of these components. He does not indicate that he is giving up writing all together.

Eating Healthy Passage

31. B. Since the claim of this paragraph is that there are many who want us to eat healthy foods and since sentences two and three attribute quoted information to Walsh, B is a sentence that would appropriately introduce Walsh to the audience. Choices C, D, and E are all related to Bittman. Placing a sentence before or after sentences four or five would not be logical and would confuse the reader.

32. C. The development of the appeal to authority (C) supports the thesis. Paragraphs 2, 3, 4, and 5 make specific reference to attributed experts related to the given data and examples in support of the thesis.

33. A. Using the mathematical theme established in paragraph 3, the author creates an image/analogy (A) of the algebraic equation to reinforce the claim that eating meat leads to hunger.

34. B. Although some would see the purpose of this essay as advocating for a limit on eating red meat (A), there are other goals developed. Choice D identifies the main purpose as reviewing the current state of research; however, citing one or two examples of the research is not all of it. The only choice that is inclusive of the other goal(s) is B.

35. C. Choices B, D, And E do combine the two sentences; however, each of these sentences presents problems with awkward construction or missing information. Choice C presents a clear and complete combination.

36. D. Because it references earlier details that compose the subject of the last two sentences, D would smoothly lead the reader into an understanding of what follows. Logic and clarity are not served by any of the other choices.

37. E. Choices A, B, and C incorrectly make it appear that the essay will center on the writer and his friends. D presents misinformation about what will be the thesis. Choice E clearly introduces the reader to the context and thesis of this essay.

38. B. Choice B uses This to refer to the rhetorical question that immediately precedes the sentence, and it connects it to the subject and organization pattern of the essay to follow. This is the thesis. The other choices do not offer the needed structure to appropriately connect to the rest of the essay.

39. A. Remember exigence simply means the “boot in the butt” that pushes the writer/author to act. Also, always remember to read introductory material. In this case, we are told that the essay is a response to a given prompt. Given this information, it should be clear that the exigence is choice A.

40. C. There is nothing in the essay that depends on the audience knowing specifics about scientific/mathematical formulas, equations, and experiments (C). The other choices A, B, D, and E are the basis for the writer’s appeal and organization of material.

41. C. The last sentence with its direct quotation does not lead the audience to infer that the writer is advocating for any government or corporate policies. (Choices D, E) Nor is there a hint of compromise or confusion. (Choices A, B) With the reference to both cars and food, the audience is encouraged to see the interconnection between what they buy and eat and their effect on the environment. (C)

Letter to the Editor

42. C. But all history is revisionist, as it is based on newly uncovered primary sources, scholarship, and contributions from groups—like enslaved Africans and African-Americans—excluded from previous accounts. This sentence presents the author’s position with an indication of the type of reasoning that will support the assertion. Prior to this paragraph, the writer has provided context and needed background information that sets up his argument (A & B). The fourth paragraph continues the argument (D), and the last paragraph provides the reader with information about the author’s credibility (E).

43. A. This is added information that highlights the writer’s credibility/expertise. It does not develop the argument. If the writer were to have this sentence at the very beginning, the reader would be expecting the text to develop a claim about teaching about slavery to high school students (B). Placing this sentence anywhere else in the text (C, D & E) would break the logical flow.

44. D. Because of the required brevity of a letter to the editor, any added words/phrases must serve a specific purpose. In this case, the writer wants to refer to the first paragraph and lead the reader into a discussion of a specific, conservative critic who has written about this “1619 Project.” He does this clearly and succinctly by adding the introductory phrase. Choice B could be a little confusing because it identifies a writer for Reason and then re-identifies that writer as a Newsday columnist. The information in choice C is already provided in that first sentence of paragraph 2. This is just repetitious. Choice E is a given. Why state it? It’s extra wording for no real purpose.

45. B. The first paragraph presents context and needed background information. Choice B provides important information to those who would not be familiar with the “1619 Project.” Placing it at the end of the first paragraph allows this information to smoothly follow the timeline and exigence that was already established. This would not happen with its placement anywhere else in the text.

Introduction to Chapters 5, 6, and 7

The essay part of the AP Language and Composition exam emphasizes three major skills:

✵ Analysis

✵ Argument

✵ Synthesis

The additional 15 minutes is to allow time for careful reading and annotation of each of the prompts and all of the resources provided for the synthesis essay. You are not required to spend this time only reading prompts and sources. But we recommend that you do so.

You may begin once you feel you have an understanding of the demands of each prompt. Remember: READ THE PROMPT.

The heading of Section II looks something like this:

Section II

Number of questions—3

Percent of total grade—55

Each question counts one-third of the total section score.

You will have a total of 2—2¼ hours to write, which you may divide any way you choose. Because each essay carries the same weight, do NOT spend an inappropriate amount of time on any one question.

Chapters 5, 6, and 7 of this book introduce you to each of the three essay types.

BEFORE BEGINNING TO WORK WITH ANY OF THE ACTUAL ESSAY PROMPTS IN THIS BOOK, READ THE REVIEW OF THE PROCESSES AND TERMS IN THE COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW SECTION. ALSO, COMPLETE SOME OF THE ACTIVITIES RELATED TO EACH OF THE SPECIFIC ESSAY TYPES.