Cracking the SSAT & ISEE - The Princeton Review 2019

Upper level SSAT practice test
SSAT practice tests

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Chapter 10 Upper level SSAT practice test

Upper Level SSAT Writing Sample

Time - 25 Minutes

1 Topic

Writing Sample

Schools would like to get to know you better through a story you will tell using one of the ideas below. Please choose the idea you find more interesting and write a story using the idea in your first sentence. Please fill in the circle next to the one you choose.

ⒶWhat did a parent tell you to do that you now wish you had done?

ⒷIt was a pleasant surprise.

Upper Level SSAT Section 1

Time - 30 Minutes

25 Questions

Following each problem in this section, there are five suggested answers. Work each problem in your head or in the blank space provided at the right of the page. Then look at the five suggested answers and decide which one is best.

Note: Figures that accompany problems in this section are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.

Sample Problem:

1.If h = 2, and h, i, and j are consecutive even integers and h < i < j, what is h + i + j ?

(A) 3

(B) 5

(D)10

(E)12

2.If x = + + and y = + + , then x + y =

(A)3

(B)1

(C)

(D)

(E)

3.If the product of 412.7 and 100 is rounded to the nearest hundred, the answer will be

(A) 400

(B) 4,100

(D)41,270

(E)41,300

4.If of a number is 28, then of that number is

(A) 4

(B) 7

(D) 35

(E)112

5.14 + 3 × 7 + (12 ÷ 2) =

(A)140

(B)125

(D) 41

(E) 20

6.Maggie wants to mail postcards to 25 of her friends and needs one stamp for each postcard. If she buys 3 stamps at a time, how many sets of stamps must she buy in order to mail all of her postcards?

(A) 3

(B) 8

(D)10

(E)25

Questions 21 and 22 refer to the following chart.

7.How much more money was raised by the $10.00 candy than by the $5.00 candy?

(A) $32

(B) $50

(D) $125

(E)$200

8.The money raised by the $15.00 candy is approximately what percent of the total money raised from the candy sale?

(A)15%

(B)20%

(D)45%

(E)50%

9.An art gallery has three collections: modern art, sculpture, and photography. If the 24 items that make up the modern art collection represent 25% of the total number of items in the gallery, then the average number of items in each of the other two collections is

(A) 8

(B) 24

(D) 96

(E)288

10.At Calvin U. Smith Elementary School, the ratio of students to teachers is 9:1. What fractional part of the entire population at the school is teachers?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

11.The Ace Delivery Company employs two drivers to make deliveries on a certain Saturday. If Driver A makes d deliveries and Driver B makes d + 2 deliveries, then in terms of d, the average number of deliveries made by each driver is

(A)d

(B)d + 1

(C)d + 2

(D) d + 2

(E) d

12.Which of the following is equal to w ?

(A)180 — v

(B)180 + v

(D)115

(E)2v

13.Tracy goes to the store and buys only candy bars and cans of soda. She buys 3 times as many candy bars as cans of soda. If she buys a total of 24 items, how many of those items are candy bars?

(A) 3

(B)12

(D)21

(E)24

14.− =

(A)

(B)

(C)—

(D)—

(E)—

15.Of the following choices, which value for x would satisfy the equation + x > 1?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

16.Given the equations 2x + y = 8 and z + y = 8, find the value of x ?

(A)—8

(B)—4

(D) 16

(E)It cannot be determined from the information given.

17.A, B, and C are squares. The length of one side of square A is 3. The length of one side of square B is twice the length of a side of square A, and the length of one side of square C is twice the length of a side of square B. What is the average area of the three squares?

(A) 21

(B) 36

(D) 84

(E)144

18.There are 12 homes on a certain street. If 4 homes are painted blue, 3 are painted red, and the remaining homes are green, what fractional part of the homes on the street are green?

(A)7

(B)5

(C)

(D)

(E)

19.Melissa lives 30 miles from work and Katy lives 40 miles from work. If Melissa and Katy work at the same office, how many miles apart do the girls live from each other?

(A)10

(B)35

(D)70

(E)It cannot be determined from the information given.

20.If, at a fundraising dinner, x guests each donate $200 and y guests each donate $300, in terms of x and y, what is the total number of dollars raised?

(A)250(x + y)

(B)200x + 300y

(D)

(E)500xy

21.A rectangular fish tank with dimensions 2 feet × 3 feet × 4 feet is being filled by a hose that produces 6 cubic feet of water per minute. At this rate, how many minutes will it take to fill the tank?

(A)24

(B) 6

(D) 3

(E) 2

22.With 4 days left in the Mountain Lake Critter Collection Contest, Mary has caught 15 fewer critters than Natalie. If Mary is to win the contest by collecting more critters than Natalie, at least how many critters per day must Mary catch?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D)30

(E)46

23.If 3x — y = 23 and x is an integer greater than 0, which of the following is NOT a possible value for y ?

(A) 9

(B) 7

(D) 1

(E)—2

24.Anna, A, and Bob, B, are avid readers. If Anna and Bob together read an average of 200 pages in a day and Bob reads fewer pages than Anna, which equation must be true?

(A)A — 200 = 200 — B

(B)A = 200 and B = 200

(C)A — B = 100

(D)A = 200 + B

(E)A + B = 200

25.$30.00 is taken off the price of a dress. If the new price is now 60% of the original price, what was the original price of the dress?

(A)$75.00

(B)$60.00

(C)$50.00

(D)$45.00

(E)$30.00

STOP

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Upper Level SSAT Section 2

Time - 40 Minutes

40 Questions

Read each passage carefully and then answer the questions about it. For each question, decide on the basis of the passage which one of the choices best answers the question.

The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from published material. To make the text suitable for testing purposes, we may have, in some cases, altered the style, contents, or point of view of the original.

1.The passage is mainly about

(A)the impact of nursing on the soldiers of the Crimean War

(B)Florence Nightingale and her influence on the profession of nursing

(C)the difference between nurses and midwives

(D)how Florence Nightingale earned the nickname “the lady with the lamp”

(E)why only females entered the profession of nursing

2.Which of the following was a method most people used to receive care before Florence Nightingale’s time?

(A)They would be cared for only by doctors.

(B)They would be cared for by their children.

(C)They were largely left uncared for.

(D)They were cared for by midwives.

(E)They were cared for by female relatives.

3.The style of the passage is most like that found in a(n)

(A)personal letter to a trusted friend

(B)anthology of short biographies of famous women

(C)history of nineteenth-century England

(D)textbook on medicine

(E)editorial written for a daily paper

4.According to the author, the primary reason that Florence Nightingale was able to open a school for nursing was that

(A)she was already famous for her work in the war

(B)her family was willing to finance her work

(C)she had gained notoriety as a difficult woman to challenge

(D)she had cared for many wealthy sick people herself

(E)she worked endless hours every night

5.According to the passage, all of the following could be said of nurses EXCEPT

(A)prior to Florence Nightingale, only midwives were trained

(B)Florence Nightingale raised the standards of their profession

(C)they are well-respected professionals today

(D)they are exceedingly well paid for their work

(E)prior to Florence Nightingale, their work was done often by female relatives

6.The word “agrarian” is most similar to which of the following?

(A)Testing

(B)Private

(C)Unequal

(D)Farming

(E)Aggressive

7.Which of the following can be inferred about the Diggers as described in the passage?

(A)They had a different political philosophy than the True Levelers.

(B)They allowed others to join them in their farming activities.

(C)They were skilled political speakers.

(C)They defeated the powerful landowners through military force.

(E)They were exceptional folk singers.

8.Which of the following was the most significant point of conflict between landowners and Diggers?

(A)The Diggers had the willingness but not the space on which to grow enough food to support themselves.

(B)Wealthy landowners in England at the time were usually violent.

(C)There was no agreement between Diggers and True Levelers.

(D)The quality of vegetables grown by the Diggers was inferior to that produced on wealthy estates.

(E)The local government did not have any authority in the dispute.

9.The passage is primarily about

(A)working hard even in challenging times

(B)social problems in England in the seventeenth century

(C)the inhumanity of wealthy English landowners

(D)Gerrard Winstanley’s ideas

(E)the brief history of an English community organization

10.According to the passage, what is the most significant difference between True Levelers and the Diggers?

(A)The True Levelers believed in farming private land, while the Diggers believed in farming public land.

(B)The True Levelers followed Gerrard Winstanley, while the Diggers had other leaders.

(C)There is no difference between the two groups, as the names refer to the same people.

(D)The True Levelers were accepted by landowners, while the Diggers were jailed.

(E)The True Levelers are not remembered in folk songs, while the Diggers are.

11.Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

(A)“How Mummies Were Preserved”

(B)“The Many Uses of the Flax Plant”

(C)“The Difference Between Seeds and Fibers”

(D)“The Types of Plant Life Around the World”

(E)“Ancient Sources of Oil and Linen”

12.The author suggests that ancient people raised flax primarily for

(A)its oil, used to preserve wood

(B)its oil, used as a rich source of nutrient

(C)its fabric, used for their clothes

(D)its fabric, used to wrap their dead

(E)its fabric and oil, for industrial uses

13.This passage sounds as if it were an excerpt from

(A)a letter to the Egyptians

(B)a book on plant life

(C)a scientific treatise

(D)a persuasive essay from an ecologist

(E)a friendly reminder to a politician

14.Which of the following questions is answered by the passage?

(A)Can the same plant be grown for the best fabric and the best oil?

(B)How did the Egyptians wrap their mummies?

(C)What temperature is optimal for growing flax?

(D)How is flax harvested?

(E)Is it possible to produce a new type of flax for fabric and oil production?

15.Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next?

(A)How flax is used around the world today

(B)Other types of useful plants

(C)Other sources of oil

(D)The usefulness of synthetic fabrics

(E)The advantages of pesticides and crop rotation

16.The primary purpose of this passage is to

(A)discuss the future of the Tower of London

(B)discuss the ramifications of using the Tower as a prison

(C)argue that the Tower is an improper place for crown jewels

(D)describe and discuss the history of the Tower of London

(E)debate the relative merits of the uses of the Tower in the past to the present

17.All of the following were uses for the Tower of London EXCEPT

(A)a place where money was made

(B)a palace for the royals

(C)a place where executions were held

(D)a place of religious pilgrimage

(E)a place where records were stored

18.Which of the following questions is answered by the passage?

(A)What controversy has surrounded the Tower of London?

(B)How much revenue does the Tower generate for England?

(C)In what year did construction on the Tower of London begin?

(D)What is the type of stone used in the Tower of London?

(E)Who was the most famous prisoner in the Tower?

19.When discussing the Tower of London, the author’s tone could best be described as

(A)bewildered

(B)objective

(C)overly emotional

(D)envious

(E)disdainful

20.Which of the following does the author imply about Rudolf Hess?

(A)He was executed at the Tower of London.

(B)He was one of the last prisoners in the Tower of London.

(C)He died an untimely death.

(D)He was a tourist attraction.

(E)He was respectful of the great Tower of London.

21.The author would most probably agree that

(A)the Tower of London is useful only as a tourist attraction

(B)the Tower of London could never be built today

(C)the Tower of London cannot generate enough revenue to justify its expenses

(D)the Tower of London has a complex history

(E)the prisoners at the Tower were relatively well treated

22.Which of the following best expresses the author’s attitude toward the painting?

(A)It should be well protected so that it is not stolen again.

(B)It is difficult to preserve such old masterpieces.

(C)Its greatest appeal is the mystery surrounding it.

(D)There will never be a painter as great as Leonardo da Vinci again.

(E)Everyone should have a chance to own great art.

23.Which of the following is a fact from the passage?

(A)A good smile lasts only a few seconds.

(B)There is tremendous mystery surrounding which painter created Mona Lisa.

(C)Napoleon donated Mona Lisa to the Musée du Louvre.

(D)There has been some focus on Mona Lisa’s smile in artistic communities.

(E)All art historians agree that Mona Lisa is the greatest work of art in the world.

24.The author implies which of the following?

(A)A painting can be owned, but the powerful effect of a work of art is available to everyone who sees it.

(B)Leonardo da Vinci was hiding a secret that he wished to reveal through his painting.

(C)Mona Lisa has caused much turmoil in the art world due to its peculiar details.

(D)The Musée du Louvre does not have proper equipment in place for capturing modern criminals.

(E)The only detail viewers of Mona Lisa can later recall is her smile.

25.The author’s tone can best be described as

(A)appreciative

(B)investigative

(C)artistic

(D)confused

(E)indifferent

26.The “progress” mentioned in line 2 most likely refers to

(A)the ability of a car to move forward

(B)technological advancement

(C)research

(D)the new types of fuels available

(E)the cost of the car

27.Which of the following is answered by the passage?

(A)What are some ways people use cars?

(B)Why did people laugh at the “horseless carriage”?

(C)Where will the fuels of the future come from?

(D)When will cars become even more efficient?

(E)How much money is spent on cars today?

28.The passage is primarily concerned with

(A)the problem of fuel consumption

(B)the difficulty of driving

(C)the invention of the car

(D)the development of the car from the past to now

(E)the future of automobiles

29.According to the passage, scientists devote much of their research today to

(A)making cars faster

(B)making more cars

(C)making cars more affordable

(D)making cars more fuel efficient

(E)making cars that hold more people

30.When discussing the technological advances of the early car, the author’s tone could best be described as

(A)proud

(B)hesitant

(C)informative

(D)pedantic

(E)sarcastic

31.The author would most likely agree that

(A)cars are incredibly useful to many different sorts of people

(B)the problems we face in the future are very important

(C)cars are more trouble than they are worth

(D)early car owners were all snobs

(E)we will never make the same technological advances as we did in the past

32.The statements in lines 3—4 most likely mean

(A)the narrator is a farmer

(B)the place described is a battle site

(C)a crime took place at that site

(D)the farmers described were all killed

(E)it is a cold day

33.In the poem, the speaker claims which of the reasons for writing this poem?

I.To warn future generations about the horrors of war

II.To keep the memory of the great deeds of soldiers alive

III.To gain courage to fight himself

(A)I only

(B)II only

(C)II and III only

(D)I and III only

(E)I, II, and III

34.The “votive stone” referred to in line 10 probably refers to

(A)a candle

(B)a weapon

(C)an old stone fence

(D)a war memorial

(E)a natural landmark

35.With which statement would the author most strongly agree?

(A)All war is in vain.

(B)Farming is a difficult life.

(C)It is important to remember the brave soldiers.

(D)How a man fights is as important as how he lives his life.

(E)A memorial is an insignificant way to remember the past.

36.Which of the following is the primary purpose of the passage?

(A)To discuss the success of Puerto Rican actors on Broadway

(B)To suggest that José Ferrer was the best actor ever to play Cyrano de Bergerac

(C)To provide a synopsis of the career of a well-regarded American actor

(D)To contrast the history of theater with the history of television

(E)To compare two great Broadway actors, Paul Robeson and José Ferrer

37.The author would most likely agree with which of the following?

(A)Ferrer’s career was long because he was able to play many different roles.

(B)Ferrer regretted waiting years before he became a screen actor.

(C)Princeton University’s Triangle Club allowed Ferrer to learn from Jimmy Stewart and F. Scott Fitzgerald.

(D)Cyrano de Bergerac is the greatest role ever written for the Broadway stage.

(E)Cyrano de Bergerac was Ferrer’s favorite role to perform.

38.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(A)Most members of the Triangle Club have successful acting careers.

(B)Ferrer was more honored by his Tony award than by his Emmy or Oscar.

(C)The record-setting run of Othello may have been in part due to Paul Robeson.

(D)Ferrer did not perform again on Broadway after he began performing in movies.

(E)Ferrer’s performance as Cyrano set a record that still stands today.

39.The author would most likely agree with all of the following EXCEPT

(A)Paul Robeson was seen by some as a very talented actor

(B)Ferrer is somewhat responsible for the success of the longest-running Broadway play in history

(C)some actors consider Cyrano de Bergerac a role they would like to perform

(D)it is difficult to win prestigious acting awards

(E)Ferrer’s successful performance in Othello was his first Broadway performance

40.Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude toward José Ferrer?

(A)Indifference

(B)Envy

(C)Friendship

(D)Isolation

(E)Admiration

STOP

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Upper Level SSAT Section 3

Time - 30 Minutes

60 Questions

This section consists of two different types of questions. There are directions and a sample question for each type.

Each of the following questions consists of one word followed by five words or phrases. You are to select the one word or phrase whose meaning is closest to the word in capital letters.

Sample Question:

CHILLY:

(A) lazy

(B) nice

(D) cold

(E) sunny

1.CONTORT:

(A)bend

(B)deform

(C)color

(D)amuse

(E)occupy

2.GRIM:

(A)clean

(B)relaxing

(C)frown

(D)harsh

(E)irresponsible

3.PROHIBIT:

(A)attempt

(B)recount

(C)diminish

(D)conserve

(E)forbid

4.VACANT:

(A)stark

(B)varied

(C)dreary

(D)rented

(E)huge

5.AUSTERE:

(A)plentiful

(B)ornate

(C)miserly

(D)severe

(E)empty

6.QUELL:

(A)stifle

(B)dissemble

(C)articulate

(D)rock gently

(E)praise highly

7.FORTIFY:

(A)emphasize

(B)strengthen

(C)revere

(D)diffuse

(E)surround

8.PROCLIVITY:

(A)efficiency

(B)accuracy

(C)authenticity

(D)propensity

(E)proprietary

9.FORMIDABLE:

(A)malleable

(B)powerful

(C)talented

(D)fearful

(E)trainable

10.STYMIE:

(A)construct

(B)swindle

(C)depress

(D)frustrate

(E)reason

11.ERRATIC:

(A)constant

(B)amiable

(C)innate

(D)inconsistent

(E)caustic

12.CONCILIATE:

(A)pacify

(B)replace

(C)inform

(D)expose

(E)surpass

13.REFRACTORY:

(A)stubborn

(B)excessive

(C)ironic

(D)inhumane

(E)improper

14.TRUNCATE:

(A)packed

(B)shorten

(C)grow

(D)remind

(E)reproach

15.MEAGER:

(A)gullible

(B)novel

(C)sparse

(D)vulnerable

(E)providential

16.CREDIBLE:

(A)obsolete

(B)plausible

(C)fabulous

(D)mundane

(E)superficial

17.CULPABLE:

(A)elusive

(B)unheralded

(C)esoteric

(D)worthy of blame

(E)sanctioned

18.DEPLORE:

(A)rejoice

(B)mitigate

(C)lament

(D)imply

(E)prevent

19.ACCLAIM:

(A)compliment

(B)feast

(C)assert

(D)blame

(E)compose

20.GUILE:

(A)vengeance

(B)fear

(C)trust

(D)loathing

(E)cunning

21.FALLOW:

(A)prompt

(B)unused

(C)deep

(D)secondary

(E)recessive

22.CHAMPION:

(A)deter

(B)force

(C)fight

(D)side with

(E)change

23.IMBUE:

(A)renew

(B)suffuse

(C)dawdle

(D)compete

(E)impress

24.POSTHUMOUS:

(A)in the future

(B)post war

(C)after death

(D)during the age of

(E)promptly

25.INAUSPICIOUS:

(A)colorless

(B)prudent

(C)misplaced

(D)unfortunate

(E)raising intelligent questions

26.RENAISSANCE:

(A)carnival

(B)fortune

(C)burial

(D)revival

(E)earlier time

27.DECOMPOSITION:

(A)combustion

(B)infiltration

(C)perturbation

(D)equalization

(E)disintegration

28.AGGRANDIZEMENT:

(A)assessment

(B)leniency

(C)restitution

(D)annulment

(E)glorification

29.GULLIBLE:

(A)stranded

(B)easily deceived

(C)distant

(D)assailable

(E)scheduled

30.REFUTATION:

(A)attraction

(B)rebuttal

(C)legal activity

(D)confirmation

(E)enthusiastic response

The following questions ask you to find relationships between words. For each question, select the answer choice that best completes the meaning of the sentence.

Sample Question:

Kitten is to cat as

(A) fawn is to colt

(B) puppy is to dog

(D) wolf is to bear

(E) hen is to rooster

Choice (B) is the best answer because a kitten is a young cat, just as a puppy is a young dog. Of all the answer choices, (B) states a relationship that is most like the relationship between kitten and cat.

31.Composer is to score as

(A)conductor is to orchestra

(B)operator is to telephone

(C)teacher is to classroom

(D)attorney is to trial

(E)author is to book

32.Stanza is to poem as

(A)sonnet is to play

(B)drama is to theater

(C)paragraph is to essay

(D)teacher is to class

(E)preface is to book

33.Sovereign is to monarchy as principal is to

(A)school

(B)administrators

(C)workers

(D)crew

(E)town

34.Cylinder is to can as

(A)circle is to square

(B)perimeter is to area

(C)cube is to dice

(D)line is to angle

(E)arc is to sphere

35.Laughter is to joke as

(A)read is to story

(B)question is to answer

(C)wince is to pain

(D)talk is to conversation

(E)cramp is to swim

36.Massive is to weight as

(A)gargantuan is to size

(B)acute is to hearing

(C)tender is to feeling

(D)simple is to thought

(E)foolish is to idea

37.Pint is to quart as

(A)cup is to teaspoon

(B)mile is to road

(C)measure is to recipe

(D)week is to year

(E)temperature is to thermometer

38.Scrawl is to writing as

(A)decipher is to code

(B)babble is to speaking

(C)carve is to stone

(D)tango is to dancing

(E)direct is to acting

39.Stoic is to emotion as

(A)serious is to concern

(B)soothe is to injury

(C)amorphous is to shape

(D)choke is to morsel

(E)breathe is to life

40.Frugal is to spending as unruly is to

(A)fractious

(B)impossible

(C)obedient

(D)warmth

(E)pride

41.Integrity is to honesty as

(A)comprehension is to instruction

(B)fame is to happiness

(C)resolution is to determination

(D)severity is to compassion

(E)quotation is to report

42.Lily is to flower as pine is to

(A)oak

(B)needle

(C)forest

(D)winter

(E)wood

43.Kitchen is to galley as

(A)wheel is to car

(B)fireplace is to heat

(C)lobby is to apartment

(D)house is to ship

(E)exhibit is to museum

44.Blooming is to rose as

(A)withered is to vine

(B)prolific is to weed

(C)fertile is to field

(D)edible is to corn

(E)ripe is to tomato

45.Mask is to face as

(A)coat is to fabric

(B)shoe is to foot

(C)belt is to leather

(D)hem is to skirt

(E)invitation is to party

46.Agenda is to meeting as

(A)clipboard is to paper

(B)rule is to order

(C)map is to car

(D)blueprint is to building

(E)gavel is to podium

47.Pathology is to disease as psychology is to

(A)mind

(B)science

(C)doctor

(D)anguish

(E)hospital

48.Autobiography is to author as

(A)autograph is to signature

(B)self-sufficiency is to provision

(C)automation is to worker

(D)self-portrait is to artist

(E)autopsy is to doctor

49.Bird is to migration as

(A)parrot is to imitation

(B)ranger is to conservation

(C)bear is to hibernation

(D)lawyer is to accusation

(E)traveler is to location

50.Border is to country as

(A)perimeter is to area

(B)land is to owner

(C)road is to street

(D)area is to volume

(E)capital is to state

51.Patter is to rain as

(A)rainbow is to storm

(B)call is to telephone

(C)clank is to chain

(D)volume is to radio

(E)eruption is to volcano

52.Brazen is to tact as

(A)lethargic is to energy

(B)agile is to strength

(C)humongous is to size

(D)ancient is to time

(E)fallen is to grace

53.Taciturn is to words as

(A)thrifty is to money

(B)petty is to concern

(C)silly is to extras

(D)startled is to surprise

(E)trusting is to care

54.Scalpel is to razor as surgeon is to

(A)barber

(B)gardener

(C)chef

(D)patient

(E)engineer

55.Storyteller is to listener as

(A)accompanist is to composer

(B)critique is to commentator

(C)banter is to humorist

(D)anthologist is to editor

(E)pantomime is to viewer

56.Gully is to erosion as

(A)drought is to precipitation

(B)mine is to excavation

(C)clot is to dispersion

(D)forest is to cultivation

(E)water is to inundation

57.Drip is to deluge as

(A)shine is to polish

(B)warm is to heat

(C)yearn is to wish

(D)smolder is to blaze

(E)bend is to straight

58.Lax is to resolution as

(A)hapless is to circumstance

(B)detrimental is to destruction

(C)deceitful is to sincerity

(D)vulnerable is to wound

(E)accessible is to rewarded

59.Hammer is to pound as

(A)vase is to flowers

(B)briefcase is to papers

(C)nail is to wood

(D)screwdriver is to tool

(E)jack is to raise

60.Lexicon is to words as anthology is to

(A)reading

(B)library

(C)books

(D)works

(E)pages

STOP

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Upper Level SSAT Section 4

Time - 30 Minutes

25 Questions

Note: Figures that accompany problems in this section are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.

Sample Problem:

1.2⁴ =

(A)24

(B)16

(D) 6

(E) 4

2.x =

(A) 30

(B) 60

(D)120

(E)300

3.If — 4 < x < 2, how many possible integer values for x are there?

(A)6

(B)5

(D)3

(E)2

Questions 4-6 refer to the following graph.

4.By how many dollars did Ken’s savings account balance grow from 2011 to 2012 ?

(A) $25.00

(B) $50.00

(D)$100.00

(E)$150.00

5.The decrease in Ken’s account balance from 2013 to 2014 equals what percent of Ken’s account balance at the start of 2012 ?

(A)100%

(B) 75%

(D) 50%

(E) 25%

6.If during 2014, Ken withdrew from his account one-half the amount he withdrew in 2013, how many dollars would be left in his account at the end of 2014 ?

(A) $50

(B) $75

(C)$100

(D)$150

(E)$200

7.A large square box is made up of smaller square boxes. Each of these smaller boxes has a side length of 3 inches. How many of these smaller boxes are used to create the larger box if the larger box’s base has a perimeter of 36 inches?

(A) 9

(B) 27

(D) 64

(E)108

8.Calculate 10x — y² when x = 4 and y = 5.

(A) 4

(B) 7

(D)25

(E)30

9.Which of the following fractions is greatest?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

10.If x + y = z, then z =

(A)180

(B) 90

(D) 45

(E) 30

11.Anita bowled a 100, a 120, and an 88 on her first three games. What must her score be on the fourth game to raise her average for the day to a 130 ?

(A) 80

(B) 95

(D)145

(E)212

12.There are 35 girls and 24 boys in a club. One quarter of the boys are wearing red shirts. Forty percent of the girls are wearing yellow shirts. How many more club members are wearing yellow shirts than red shirts?

(A) 1

(B) 3

(D) 9

(E)12

13.36 is 16 percent of

(A) 25

(B) 52

(D)125

(E)225

14.Mr. Patterson pays $1,200 each month for a storage warehouse that measures 75 feet by 200 feet. What is the monthly cost per square foot?

(A) $0.08

(B) $0.75

(D) $8.00

(E)$450.00

15.The ratio of rhubarb plants to tomato plants in Jim’s garden is 4 to 5. If there is a total of 45 rhubarb and tomato plants all together, how many of these plants are rhubarb plants?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D)20

(E)25

16.If m is a positive integer, and if 3 + 16 ÷ m is an integer less than 19, which of the following must be true of m ?

(A)m = 19

(B)m is even

(C)m = 16

(D)m is a prime number

(E)m is a multiple of four

17.If an item that is discounted by 20% still costs more than $28.00, the original price of the item must be

(A)less than $3.50

(B)less than $7.00

(C)less than $35.00

(D)equal to $35.00

(E)more than $35.00

18.What is the perimeter of triangle MNO ?

(A) 3

(B) 9

(D)27

(E)It cannot be determined from the information given.

19.It takes Alice between 2 and 2 hours to drive home from college. If the trip is 100 miles, her average speed, in miles per hour, must always be between

(A)10 and 20

(B)25 and 30

(D)40 and 50

(E)50 and 60

20.What is the value of the underlined digit?

470.18

(A)8 hundredths

(B)8 tenths

(D)8 tens

(E)8 hundreds

Questions 21 and 22 refer to the following chart.

21.The number of patients that Dr. Davis saw on Friday represents what percent of the total number of patients she saw during the entire week?

(A)33 %

(B)25%

(D) 4%

(E)It cannot be determined from the information given.

22.Over the entire week, Dr. Adams and Dr. Davis together saw what percent of the total number of patients seen by all four doctors?

(A)16%

(B)28%

(D)50%

(E)88%

23.A store sells mints for 50¢ each or $4.80 for a case of 12 mints. The cost per mint is what percent greater when the mints are purchased separately than when purchased in a case?

(A)10%

(B)20%

(D)25%

(E)30%

24.Michael sells chocolate covered bananas. On average, he sells 130 chocolate covered bananas each day. Michael is looking to expand business and runs a special on bananas purchased after 4 P.M. Customers will pay only $3.00 rather than $4.00 for a chocolate covered banana. In order to maintain his current revenue, what is the minimum number of customers needed to buy $3.00 bananas if Michael has 40 customers buying $4.00 bananas each day?

(A) 90

(B)120

(D)170

(E)360

25.If the length of one of the legs of a right triangle is decreased by 10%, and the length of the other leg is increased by 20%, then what is the approximate percent change in the area of the triangle?

(A) 2%

(B) 8%

(D)15%

(E)18%

STOP

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Chapter 11 Middle level SSAT practice test

Middle Level SSAT Writing Sample

Time - 25 Minutes

1 Topic

Writing Sample

Schools would like to get to know you better through a story you tell using one of the ideas below. Please choose the idea you find more interesting and write a story using the idea in your first sentence. Please fill in the circle next to the one you choose.

Ⓐ What I noticed across the street caused me to…

Ⓑ The room was surprisingly cold.

Middle Level SSAT Section 1

Time - 30 Minutes

25 Questions

Note: Figures that accompany problems in this section are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.

Sample Problem:

1.Which fraction equals ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

2.Which of the following is an even positive integer that lies between 22 and 27 ?

(A)25

(B)24

(D)21

(E)20

3.In the number 281, the sum of the digits is how much less than the product of the digits?

(A)16

(B)11

(D) 5

(E) 4

4.(109 — 102) × 3 — 4² =

(A) 5

(B) 0

(D) —7

(E)—336

5.A concert is held at a stadium that has 25,000 seats. If exactly of the seats were filled, to the nearest thousand, how many people attended the concert?

(A)10,000

(B)14,000

(D)19,000

(E)21,000

6.The perimeter of a square with an area of 81 is

(A)81

(B)54

(D)18

(E) 9

7.If the sum of three consecutive positive integers is 9, what is the middle integer?

(A)1

(B)2

(D)4

(E)5

8.A number greater than 2 that is a factor of both 20 and 16 is also a factor of which number?

(A)10

(B)14

(D)24

(E)30

9.(2³)² =

(A)2

(B)2⁵

(D)4⁵

(E)4⁶

10.If is greater than then M could be

(A) 7

(B) 8

(D)10

(E)32

11.The sum of the lengths of two sides of an equilateral triangle is 4. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

(E)12

Questions 12—14 refer to the following chart.

Stacey’s Weekly Mileage

Day	Miles Driven
MONDAY	35
TUESDAY	70
WEDNESDAY	50
THURSDAY	105
FRIDAY	35
SATURDAY	35
SUNDAY	20
Total	350

Figure 1

12.What percentage of her total weekly mileage did Stacey drive on Monday?

(A)10%

(B)20%

(D)60%

(E)90%

13.The number of miles Stacey drove on Thursday is equal to the sum of the miles she drove on which days?

(A)Monday and Wednesday

(B)Saturday and Sunday

(C)Tuesday, Wednesday, and Friday

(D)Friday, Saturday, and Sunday

(E)Monday, Friday, and Saturday

14.The number of miles Stacey drove on Sunday is equal to what percent of the number of miles she drove on Wednesday?

(A)10%

(B)20%

(D)50%

(E)80%

15.If x = 5, which of the following is equal to ?

(A)10

(B)20

(D) 2

(E) 3

16.What is 20% of 25% of 80 ?

(A) 4%

(B) 5%

(D)16%

(E)20%

17.During one week, Roy worked 3 hours on Monday, 5 hours on Tuesday, and 8 hours each day on Saturday and Sunday. The following week Roy worked a total of 40 hours. What was the average number of hours Roy worked each week?

(A)32

(B)28

(D)12

(E) 6

18.A box with dimensions 4 × 8 × 10 is equal in volume to a box with dimensions 16 × g × 2. What does g equal?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D)10

(E)16

19.Otto wants to buy two CDs that regularly sell for b dollars each. The store is having a sale in which the second CD costs half price. If he buys the CDs at this store, what is the overall percent he will save on the price of the two CDs?

(A)10%

(B)25%

(D)50%

(E)75%

20.In a certain month Ben eats 8 dinners at Italian restaurants, 4 dinners at Chinese restaurants, and 6 dinners at steakhouses. If these dinners account for all Ben’s restaurant visits during the month, what percent of Ben’s restaurant meals were at steakhouses?

(A)75%

(B)66 %

(D)33 %

(E)10%

21.What is the area of the shaded region?

(A)48

(B)36

(D)12

(E)It cannot be determined from the information given.

22.In the equation (2 + _ + 3)(2) = 16, what does the _ stand for?

(A) 3

(B) 8

(D)10

(E)12

23.At Skytop Farm, the ratio of cows to pigs is 16 to 1. Which of the following could be the total number of cows and pigs at the farm?

(A)15

(B)16

(D)68

(E)74

24.Sibyl has seen four more films than Linda has seen. Linda has seen twice as many films as Joel has seen. If Sibyl has seen s films, then in terms of s, which of the following is an expression for the number of films Joel has seen?

(A) — 2

(B) — 4

(C)s — 2

(D)s — 4

(E)

Question 25 refers to the following definition.

For all integers x, @ x = 2x

25.@3 — @2 =

(A)@4

(B)@2

(C)@1

(D)@—2

(E)@—3

STOP

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Middle Level SSAT Section 2

Time - 40 Minutes

40 Questions

Read each passage carefully and then answer the questions about it. For each question, decide on the basis of the passage which one of the choices best answers the questions.

The native inhabitants of the Americas arrived from Asia more than 20,000 years ago. They belonged to numerous tribes and many were skilled hunters, farmers, and fishers. Some of the most famous of the tribes of Native Americans are the Sioux, the Cheyenne, the Iroquois, and the Apache.

These tribes settled and developed organized societies. The settlers to North America from Europe fought the Native Americans for land. Geronimo was the last great Native American chief to organize rebellions against the settlers. He led raids across the southwest and into Mexico. Although he eventually was captured, he later became a celebrity.

After a long battle, the United States government moved the Native Americans onto reservations—special sections of land set aside for them—where many still reside today.

1.The main purpose of this passage is to

(A)report on the current status of Native Americans

(B)offer a solution to the problems of Native Americans

(C)give a brief history of Native Americans

(D)discuss ways Native Americans are able to work on reservations

(E)give a history of different Native American tribes

2.According to the passage, the fate of Geronimo was

(A)to live out his life in disgrace

(B)to become a great war hero with no defeats

(C)to become famous throughout the country

(D)to die penniless and alone

(E)to commit suicide

3.The author’s tone in regard to the fate of Native Americans is

(A)passionate

(B)objective

(C)disappointed

(D)ambivalent

(E)envious

4.Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next?

(A)Possible causes of Native American resentment

(B)The life of the Native American in modern society

(C)The battle that defeated Geronimo

(D)The differences among tribes

(E)A detailed history of the Sioux

5.The passage names all the following as skills possessed by Native Americans EXCEPT

(A)farming

(B)hunting

(C)fishing

(D)gathering

(E)fighting

Twenty percent of all the land on Earth consists of deserts. When most people think of deserts, they think of searing heat, big sand dunes, and camels. But not all deserts are huge sand piles—many are strewn with rocks and some, like those at high altitudes, may actually be quite cold.

Desert life is interesting and varied as well. Though the desert is a punishing place—it is difficult to find food and water in the desert—many animals live there. Because there is so little water, desert animals have adapted. Camels can survive for days without drinking. Other animals get their water from the insects and plants they eat.

The extreme temperatures of the desert can make life difficult as well. Many of the mammals there have thick fur to keep out the heat and the cold. Some desert animals are nocturnal, sleeping by day and hunting by night when the air is cooler. It may seem that all deserts are the same, but they are as different as the animals that inhabit them.

6.The passage is primarily about

(A)deserts and desert wildlife

(B)nocturnal animals

(C)plant life of the desert

(D)sources of water in the desert

(E)average desert temperatures

7.Which of the following can be inferred as an example of an adaptation to desert life?

(A)The large claws of the lizard

(B)The heavy outer shell of the beetle

(C)The long ears of the hedgehog that give off heat to cool the animal

(D)The large hood of the cobra that scares off predators

(E)The quick speed of the mongoose so that it may catch its prey

8.The style of the passage is most like that found in a(n)

(A)scientific thesis

(B)general book on desert life

(C)advanced text on animal adaptations

(D)diary of a naturalist

(E)biography of a desert researcher

9.According to the passage, camels are well adapted to desert life because

(A)they have long legs

(B)they have thick fur that keeps them cool

(C)they have large hooded eyes

(D)they are capable of hunting at night

(E)they can store water for many days

10.According to the passage, some deserts

(A)are filled with lush vegetation

(B)are home to large bodies of water

(C)actually get a good deal of rainfall

(D)can be in a cold climate

(E)are home to large, thriving cities

11.The word “punishing” in line 5 most closely means

(A)beating

(B)harsh

(C)unhappy

(D)deadly

(E)fantastic

The original Olympic Games started in Greece more than 2,000 years ago. These games were a religious festival, and, at their height, lasted for five days. Only men could compete, and the sports included running, wrestling, and chariot racing.

Today’s Olympic Games are quite a bit different. First, there are two varieties: Winter Olympics and Summer Olympics. They each boast many men and women competing in a multitude of sports, from skiing to gymnastics. They are each held every four years, but not during the same year. They alternate so that there are Olympic Games every two years. The Olympics are no longer held only in one country. They are hosted by different cities around the world. The opening ceremony is a spectacular display, usually incorporating the traditional dances and culture of the host city.

The highlight of the opening ceremony is the lighting of the Olympic flame. Teams of runners carry the torch from Olympia, the site of the ancient Greek games. Although the games have changed greatly throughout the centuries, the spirit of competition is still alive. The flame represents that spirit.

12.The passage is primarily concerned with

(A)justifying the existence of the Olympic Games

(B)explaining all about the games in Ancient Greece

(C)discussing the differences between Winter Olympics and Summer Olympics

(D)comparing the modern Olympic Games to those in Ancient Greece

(E)explaining the process for choosing a host country

13.The author mentions “traditional dances and culture of the host city” in order to

(A)give an example of how the opening ceremony is so spectacular

(B)explain the differences among the different host cities

(C)show that Ancient Greek games were quite boring by contrast

(D)make an analogy to the life of the Ancient Greeks

(E)illustrate the complexity of the modern games

14.The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as

(A)disinterested

(B)upbeat

(C)gloating

(D)depressing

(E)fatalistic

15.The lighting of the torch is meant to symbolize

(A)the destruction caused in Ancient Greece

(B)the spirit of Ancient Greek competition

(C)the rousing nature of the games

(D)the heat generated in competition

(E)an eternal flame so that the games will continue forever

16.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(A)Women in ancient Greece did not want to compete in the Olympics.

(B)The Olympics were held every year.

(C)The Olympics used to be held in just one country.

(D)Ice skating is a winter event.

(E)Opening ceremonies today are more spectacular than ones in ancient Greece.

Like snakes, lizards, and crocodiles, turtles are reptiles. The earliest fossils recognized as turtles are about 200 million years old and date from the time when dinosaurs roamed Earth. Unbelievably, turtles have changed little in appearance since that time.

There are many different types of turtles in many different climates around the world. In contrast to other reptiles, whose populations are confined largely to the tropics, turtles are most abundant in southeastern North America and southeastern Asia. They live in lakes, ponds, salt marshes, rivers, forests, and even deserts. The sizes of turtles vary. Bog or mud turtles grow no larger than about 4 inches (10 centimeters) long. At the other end of the spectrum is the sea-roving leatherback turtle, which may be more than 6.5 feet (2 meters) in length and weigh more than 1,100 pounds (500 kilograms).

Turtles live longer than most other animals, but reports of turtles living more than a century are questionable. Several kinds, however, have lived more than 50 years in captivity. Even in natural environments, box turtles and slider turtles can reach ages of 20 to 30 years. The ages of some turtles can be estimated by counting the growth rings that form each year on the external bony plates of the shell.

17.The author mentions dinosaurs in the first paragraph to

(A)illustrate the age of the turtle fossils

(B)uncover the mystery of turtle origins

(C)show that turtles may become extinct

(D)give an example of the type of predator that turtles once faced

(E)bring the life of the turtle into focus

18.Turtles are different from other reptiles because they

(A)date back to dinosaur times

(B)have not adapted to their environment

(C)live in different climates

(D)are desert dwellers

(E)are good pets

19.When the author discusses the theory that turtles may live to be more than 100, the tone can best be described as

(A)respectful

(B)ridiculing

(C)horrified

(D)interested

(E)skeptical

20.One of the ways to verify the age of a turtle is to

(A)measure the turtle

(B)count the rings on its shell

(C)examine the physical deterioration of its shell

(D)weigh the turtle

(E)subtract its weight from its length

21.The author would most probably agree that

(A)turtles are more interesting than other reptiles

(B)there is a lot to be learned about turtles

(C)turtles live longer than any other animal

(D)turtles can be very dangerous

(E)there are no bad turtles

The summer holidays! Those magic words! The mere mention of them used to send shivers of joy rippling over my skin. All my summer holidays, from when I was four years old to when I was seventeen (1920 to 1932), were idyllic. This, I am certain, was because we always went to the same idyllic place, and that place was Norway.

Except for my ancient half-sister and my not-quite-so-ancient half-brother, the rest of us were all pure Norwegian by blood. We all spoke Norwegian and all our relations lived over there. So in a way, going to Norway every summer was like going home.

Even the journey was an event. Do not forget that there were no commercial aeroplanes in those times, so it took us four whole days to complete the trip out and another four days to get home again.

22.The author’s goal in writing was to express

(A)his affection for Norway

(B)his dislike of his half-sister and half-brother

(C)dismay at the drudgery of the journey

(D)how different life was back then

(E)his realization that the trip was so long

23.The author uses the word “idyllic” in the first paragraph to mean

(A)scary

(B)pleasant

(C)religious

(D)cold

(E)boring

24.The author uses the analogy that “going to Norway every summer was like going home” to illustrate

(A)how much he dreaded the journey

(B)how frequently they went to Norway

(C)why his half-sister and half-brother were going along

(D)how long they stayed in Norway

(E)how happy and comfortable he was there

25.The author mentions the length of the trip in order to

(A)make the reader sympathetic to his plight

(B)make the reader understand why the trip was an adventure

(C)help the reader visualize the boredom that he faced

(D)give the reader some sympathy for the half-sister and half-brother

(E)help the reader visualize Norway

You may love to walk along the seashore and collect beautiful shells, but do you ever think about whose home that shell was before you found it? That’s right, seashells are the home of a whole group of creatures known as shellfish. Some of the most common types of shellfish are the mussel, the clam, and the scallop.

It may surprise you to learn that the shellfish themselves make the shells. They manage to draw calcium carbonate, a mineral, from the water. They use that mineral to build the shell up layer by layer. The shell can grow larger and larger as the shellfish grows in size.

There are two main types of shells. There are those that are a single unit, like a conch’s shell, and those that are in two pieces, like a clam’s shell. The two-piece shell is called a bivalve, and the two pieces are hinged together, like a door, so that the shell can open and close for feeding.

26.The “home” mentioned in line 2 most likely refers to

(A)the sea

(B)the planet

(C)the places shellfish can be found

(D)the shell

(E)a shelter for fish

27.Which of the following questions is answered by the passage?

(A)How do shellfish reproduce?

(B)How much does the average shellfish weigh?

(C)What is the average life span of a shellfish?

(D)What do shellfish feed on?

(E)How do shellfish make their shells?

28.This passage is primarily concerned with

(A)how shellfish differ from other fish

(B)the life span of shellfish

(C)shellfish and their habitats

(D)a general discussion of shells

(E)the origin of shells

29.The author uses the comparison of the bivalves’ hinge to a door in order to

(A)illustrate how the shell opens and closes

(B)explain why the shell is so fragile

(C)give a reason for the shells that are found open

(D)explain the mechanism for how the shells are made

(E)illustrate that shellfish are not so different from other fish

30.What is the best title of the selection?

(A)“A Conch by Any Other Name Would Shell as Sweet”

(B)“Going to the Beach”

(C)“I Can Grow My Own Home!”

(D)“The Prettiest Aquatic Life”

(E)“How to Find Shells”

31.According to the passage, the primary difference between the conch’s shell and the clam’s shell is that

(A)the conch shell is more valuable than the clam’s shell

(B)the conch shell protects better than the clam’s shell

(C)the conch shell is more beautiful than the clam’s shell

(D)the clam’s shell is more difficult for the clam to manufacture than the conch shell is for the conch to manufacture

(E)the conch shell has fewer pieces than the clam shell

By day the bat is cousin to the mouse;

He likes the attic of an aging house.

His fingers make a hat about his head.

His pulse-beat is so slow we think him dead.

He loops in crazy figures half the night

Among the trees that face the corner light.

But when he brushes up against a screen,

We are afraid of what our eyes have seen:

For something is amiss or out of place

When mice with wings can wear a human face.

—Theodore Roethke

32.The “hat” referred to in line 3 is meant to refer to

(A)the attic of the house

(B)the bat’s head

(C)the bat’s wings

(D)the death of the bat

(E)the mouse

33.The passage uses which of the following to describe the bat?

I.The image of a winged mouse

II.The image of a vampire

III.The way he flies

(A)I only

(B)I and II only

(C)II and III only

(D)I and III only

(E)I, II, and III

34.The author mentions the “crazy figures” in line 5 to refer to

(A)the comic notion of a mouse with wings

(B)the pattern of the bat’s flight

(C)the shape of the house

(D)the reason the bat appears dead

(E)the trees in the yard

35.The author would most probably agree with which of the following statements?

(A)Bats are useful animals.

(B)Bats are related to mice.

(C)Bats are feared by many.

(D)Most people have bats in their attic.

(E)Bats are an uninteresting phenomenon.

Did you ever watch a sport and admire the players’ uniforms? Perhaps you play a sport and know the thrill of putting on your team’s uniform. Uniforms are important for many different reasons, whether you are playing a sport or watching one.

If you are playing a sport, you have many reasons to appreciate your uniform. You may notice how different uniforms are for different sports. That’s because they are designed to make participation both safe and easy. If you participate in track and field, your uniform is designed to help you run faster and move more easily. If you participate in a sport like boxing or football, your uniform will protect you as well. You may wear special shoes, like sneakers or cleats, to help you run faster or keep you from slipping.

If you watch sports, you can appreciate uniforms as well. Imagine how difficult it would be to tell the players on a field apart without their uniforms. And of course, as sports fans all over the world do, you can show support for the team you favor by wearing the colors of the team’s uniform.

36.The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A)discuss the importance of team spirit

(B)explain why uniforms are important for safety

(C)give a general history of uniforms

(D)help shed light on the controversy surrounding uniforms

(E)give some reasons why uniforms are useful

37.The “support” mentioned in line 12 most probably means

(A)nourishment

(B)salary

(C)endorsement

(D)brace

(E)relief

38.Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude toward uniforms?

(A)Most of them are basically the same.

(B)They have many different purposes.

(C)They’re most useful as protection against injury.

(D)They are fun to wear.

(E)They don’t serve any real purpose.

39.According to the passage, people need special uniforms for track and field sports to

(A)help spectators cheer on the team

(B)distinguish them from other athletes

(C)protect against injury

(D)give them freedom of movement

(E)prevent them from losing

40.According to the passage, the primary reason that spectators like uniforms is that

(A)they help them to distinguish teams

(B)they have such vibrant colors

(C)they make great souvenirs

(D)they are collectible

(E)they are not too expensive

STOP

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Middle Level SSAT Section 3

Time - 30 Minutes

60 Questions

This section consists of two different types of questions. There are directions and a sample question for each type.

Each of the following questions consists of one word followed by five words or phrases. You are to select the one word or phrase whose meaning is closest to the word in capital letters.

Sample Question:

CHILLY:

(A) lazy

(B) nice

(D) cold

(E) sunny

1.OBEDIENT:

(A)amenable

(B)excessive

(C)ironic

(D)inhumane

(E)improper

2.CONTAMINATE:

(A)deodorize

(B)decongest

(C)deter

(D)taint

(E)defoliate

3.WOEFUL:

(A)wretched

(B)bloated

(C)dim

(D)animated

(E)reasonable

4.PRACTICAL:

(A)difficult to learn

(B)inferior in quality

(C)providing great support

(D)having great usefulness

(E)feeling great regret

5.SCRUTINIZE:

(A)examine carefully

(B)announce publicly

(C)infer correctly

(D)decide promptly

(E)warn swiftly

6.CONFIDE:

(A)judge

(B)entrust

(C)secret

(D)profess

(E)confuse

7.INITIATE:

(A)bring to an end

(B)sign

(C)commence

(D)hinder

(E)guide

8.FORTUNATE:

(A)lucky

(B)wealthy

(C)intelligent

(D)poor

(E)downtrodden

9.CRUMBLE:

(A)eat

(B)stumble

(C)dry out

(D)small

(E)deteriorate

10.DESPERATE:

(A)hungry

(B)frantic

(C)delicate

(D)adaptable

(E)contaminated

11.FRET:

(A)listen

(B)provide

(C)worry

(D)require

(E)stash

12.DISGUISE:

(A)mystery

(B)convict

(C)present

(D)false front

(E)pressure

13.ASSIST:

(A)support

(B)bring

(C)distrust

(D)yearn

(E)destroy

14.REPRIMAND:

(A)praise

(B)insure

(C)liberate

(D)chide

(E)forgive

15.EVADE:

(A)take from

(B)blind

(C)help

(D)sidestep

(E)successful

16.FATIGUE:

(A)grow weary

(B)become fluid

(C)increase in height

(D)recede from view

(E)improve

17.ANTIDOTE:

(A)foundation

(B)vacation

(C)poison

(D)learning experience

(E)antitoxin

18.PROPOSE:

(A)speak up

(B)marriage

(C)fall away

(D)suggest

(E)lease

19.INCREDIBLE:

(A)mundane

(B)uncivilized

(C)sophisticated

(D)believable

(E)extraordinary

20.VIGILANT:

(A)observant

(B)sleepy

(C)overly anxious

(D)brutal

(E)moving

21.TATTERED:

(A)unkempt

(B)neat

(C)exuberant

(D)unruly

(E)pressed

22.PRECEDE:

(A)stand alongside

(B)move toward

(C)come before

(D)hurl

(E)beg

23.LAMENT:

(A)relish

(B)drench

(C)moan

(D)invent

(E)incline

24.ENGAGE:

(A)date

(B)employ

(C)train

(D)dismiss

(E)fear

25.COMPETENT:

(A)disastrous

(B)fast

(C)cautious

(D)able

(E)inanimate

26.SINCERE:

(A)new

(B)passionate

(C)expensive

(D)genuine

(E)untold

27.RICKETY:

(A)strong

(B)wooden

(C)antique

(D)beautiful

(E)feeble

28.CONSPICUOUS:

(A)plain as day

(B)identity

(C)camouflaged

(D)shiny

(E)cramped

29.VERSATILE:

(A)peaceful

(B)disruptive

(C)adaptable

(D)truthful

(E)charming

30.CORROBORATION:

(A)attraction

(B)confirmation

(C)legal activity

(D)unfulfilled expectation

(E)enthusiastic response

The following questions ask you to find relationships between words. For each question, select the answer choice that best completes the meaning of the sentence.

Sample Question:

Kitten is to cat as

(A) fawn is to colt

(B) puppy is to dog

(D) wolf is to bear

(E) hen is to rooster

31.Fish is to water as

(A)bird is to egg

(B)roe is to pouch

(C)lion is to land

(D)flower is to pollen

(E)bee is to honey

32.Sick is to healthy as jailed is to

(A)convicted

(B)free

(C)guilty

(D)trapped

(E)hurt

33.Dancer is to feet as

(A)surgeon is to heart

(B)juggler is to hands

(C)drummer is to drums

(D)conductor is to voice

(E)musician is to eyes

34.Bystander is to event as

(A)juror is to verdict

(B)culprit is to crime

(C)tourist is to journey

(D)spectator is to game

(E)model is to portrait

35.Baker is to bread as

(A)shop is to goods

(B)butcher is to livestock

(C)politician is to votes

(D)sculptor is to statue

(E)family is to confidence

36.Igneous is to rock as

(A)stratum is to dig

(B)fossil is to dinosaur

(C)computer is to calculator

(D)watercolor is to painting

(E)calendar is to date

37.Delicious is to taste as melodious is to

(A)sound

(B)movie

(C)ears

(D)eyes

(E)sight

38.Clog is to shoe as

(A)sneaker is to run

(B)lace is to tie

(C)beret is to hat

(D)shirt is to torso

(E)sock is to foot

39.Cube is to square as

(A)box is to cardboard

(B)circle is to street

(C)cylinder is to pen

(D)line is to angle

(E)sphere is to circle

40.Jam is to fruit as

(A)bread is to toast

(B)butter is to milk

(C)crayon is to color

(D)height is to stone

(E)write is to pencil

41.Mile is to quart as

(A)sky is to height

(B)coffee is to drink

(C)pot is to stew

(D)floor is to ground

(E)length is to volume

42.Biologist is to scientist as surgeon is to

(A)doctor

(B)scar

(C)cut

(D)heart

(E)scalpel

43.Clay is to potter as

(A)sea is to captain

(B)magazine is to reader

(C)marble is to sculptor

(D)word is to teacher

(E)bubble is to child

44.Clip is to movie as

(A)buckle is to shoe

(B)excerpt is to novel

(C)jar is to liquid

(D)room is to house

(E)filling is to pie

45.Ruthless is to mercy as naive is to

(A)thoughtfulness

(B)illness

(C)worldliness

(D)contempt

(E)purity

46.Glacier is to ice as

(A)rain is to snow

(B)bay is to sea

(C)cloud is to storm

(D)ocean is to water

(E)pond is to fish

47.Glass is to window as

(A)wood is to building

(B)car is to motor

(C)job is to skills

(D)fabric is to clothing

(E)loan is to interest

48.Buttress is to support as scissor is to

(A)press

(B)store

(C)create

(D)cool

(E)cut

49.Sneer is to disdain as cringe is to

(A)loneliness

(B)bravery

(C)intelligence

(D)distrust

(E)fear

50.Library is to book as

(A)bank is to money

(B)museum is to patron

(C)opera is to audience

(D)restaurant is to waiter

(E)concert is to music

51.Famine is to food as

(A)drought is to water

(B)paper is to print

(C)legend is to fantasy

(D)debate is to issue

(E)clause is to contract

52.Teacher is to student as

(A)coach is to player

(B)assistant is to executive

(C)nurse is to doctor

(D)patient is to dentist

(E)theory is to technician

53.Muffle is to noise as

(A)engine is to bicycle

(B)wind is to vane

(C)dam is to flood

(D)aroma is to fetid

(E)nibble is to eat

54.Rest is to exhaustion as

(A)pack is to vacation

(B)water is to thirst

(C)audit is to forms

(D)jury is to trial

(E)tide is to ocean

55.Playwright is to script as

(A)choreographer is to dance

(B)mathematician is to science

(C)philosopher is to insight

(D)enemy is to strategy

(E)athlete is to prowess

56.Gluttony is to food as

(A)sheer is to wall

(B)avarice is to money

(C)enterprise is to earning

(D)curiosity is to danger

(E)mystery is to solution

57.Facile is to effort as

(A)deception is to trick

(B)helpful is to friend

(C)inconsiderate is to thought

(D)pious is to religion

(E)incompetent is to task

58.Single-handed is to assistance as anonymous is to

(A)praise

(B)authorship

(C)recognition

(D)sincerity

(E)ideas

59.Stable is to horse as kennel is to

(A)farm

(B)storage

(C)dog

(D)groomer

(E)boarding

60.Tree is to knee as

(A)pot is to cot

(B)bam is to lamb

(C)forest is to body

(D)bob is to cob

(E)seek is to leek

STOP

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Middle Level SSAT Section 4

Time - 30 Minutes

25 Questions

Note: Figures that accompany problems in this section are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.

Sample Problem:

1.Which of the following fractions is greatest?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

2.The sum of the factors of 12 is

(A)28

(B)21

(D)16

(E)15

3.16 + 2 × 3 + 2 =

(A)90

(B)56

(D)23

(E)18

4.D + E + F + G =

(A) 45

(B) 90

(D)270

(E)360

5.What are two different prime factors of 48 ?

(A)2 and 3

(B)3 and 4

(D)4 and 12

(E)6 and 8

6.The difference between 12 and the product of 4 and 6 is

(A)12

(B)10

(D) 1

(E) 0

7.The sum of the number of degrees in a straight line and the number of degrees in a triangle equals

(A)720

(B)540

(D)180

(E) 90

Questions 8-10 refer to the following graph.

8.The number of scarves Joseph owns plus the number of coats he owns equals

(A) 5

(B) 7

(D) 9

(E)10

9.Hats represent what percentage of the total number of garments accounted for in the graph?

(A)10%

(B)20%

(D)50%

(E)80%

10.Which types of garments represent one-third of the total number of garments accounted for in the graph?

(A)Hats and coats

(B)Gloves and scarves

(C)Hats and scarves

(D)Gloves and coats

(E)Hats, gloves, and scarves

11.George bought five slices of pizza for $10. At this price, how many slices of pizza could he buy with $32 ?

(A)16

(B)15

(D)12

(E)10

12.On a certain English test, the 10 students in Mrs. Bennett’s class score an average of 85. On the same test, 15 students in Mrs. Grover’s class score an average of 70. What is the combined average score for all the students in Mrs. Bennett’s and Mrs. Grover’s classes?

(A)80

(B)77.5

(D)75

(E)72

13.If Mary bought p pencils, Jane bought 5 times as many pencils as Mary, and Peggy bought 2 pencils fewer than Mary, then in terms of p, how many pencils did the three girls buy all together?

(A)5p — 2

(B)7

(D)8p

(E)8p — 2

14. + + 3 =

(A)4,033

(B) 433

(D) 3.34

(E) 3.304

Questions 15 and 16 refer to the following definition.

For all real numbers f, f = —2f.

15. 0 =

(A) 4

(B) 2

(D)—2

(E)—4

16. 2 × 3 =

(A) 24

(B) 2

(D) —3

(E)—12

17.2 % =

(A)0.0025

(B)0.0225

(D)2.025

(E)2.25

18.The area of triangle UVW is

(A)2h²

(B) h²

(D) 3

(E) 2

19.9⁴ is equal to which of the following?

(A)(3) × (3) × (3) × (3)

(B)(9) × (3) × (9) × (3)

(C)(9) × (4)

(D)(3) × (3) × (3) × (3) × (3) × (3) × (3) × (3)

(E)(9) × (9) + (9) × (9)

20.It costs h cents to make 12 handkerchiefs. At the same rate, how many cents will it cost to make 30 handkerchiefs?

(A)30h

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E) 5h

21.A girl collects rocks. If her collection consists of 12 pieces of halite, 16 pieces of sandstone, 8 pieces of mica, and 8 pieces of galaxite, then the average number of pieces of each type of rock in her collection is

(A) 8

(B)11

(D)16

(E)44

22.A recipe calls for 24 ounces of water for every two ounces of sugar. If 12 ounces of sugar are used, how many ounces of water should be added?

(A) 6

(B) 12

(D) 36

(E)144

23.The number of people now employed by a certain company is 240, which is 60% of the number employed five years ago. How many more employees did the company have five years ago than it has now?

(A)160

(B)360

(D)720

(E)960

24.In the multiplication problem above, B represents which digit?

(A)1

(B)2

(D)5

(E)7

25.If the area of each of the smaller squares that make up rectangle ABCD is 4, what is the perimeter of rectangle ABCD ?

(A)220

(B) 64

(D) 32

(E) 4

STOP

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

Cracking the SSAT & ISEE - The Princeton Review 2019

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