SSAT & ISEE Prep 2023 - Princeton Review 2023

Middle level ISEE practice test
ISEE practice tests

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Section 1

Verbal Reasoning

40 Questions

Time: 20 Minutes

This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have completed Part One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer you select, fill in the corresponding circle on your answer document.

Part One — Synonyms

Each question in Part One consists of a word in capital letters followed by four answer choices. Select the one word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

SAMPLE QUESTION:

TRUTH:

(A)dread

(B)marriage

(C)reality

(D)relevance

Sample Answer

Part Two — Sentence Completion

Each question in Part Two is made up of a sentence with one blank. Each blank indicates that a word or phrase is missing. The sentence is followed by four answer choices. Select the one word or phrase that best completes the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS:

The question was so ------- that the best student in class got it wrong.

(A)coarse

(B)difficult

(C)funny

(D)long

Sample Answer

Part One — Synonyms

Directions: Select the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

1.UNUSUAL:

(A) friendly

(B) happy

(C) new

(D) peculiar

2.ASSISTANCE:

(A) call

(B) disability

(C) service

(D) teaching

3.REALITY:

(A) dream

(B) fact

(C) rarity

(D) security

4.DIMINUTION:

(A) assessment

(B) leniency

(C) reduction

(D) restitution

5.CONTENTED:

(A) diplomatic

(B) disgusted

(C) mammoth

(D) satisfied

6.BOUND:

(A) badgered

(B) confused

(C) obliged

(D) relieved

7.FALTER:

(A) drop

(B) hesitate

(C) question

(D) replenish

8.CONTAINED:

(A) eliminated

(B) held

(C) raging

(D) wooden

9.REVERE:

(A) disdain

(B) esteem

(C) faith

(D) reliance

10.DILIGENT:

(A) defensive

(B) hardworking

(C) lazy

(D) obsessive

11.DETRIMENTAL:

(A) harmful

(B) knowledgeable

(C) tentative

(D) worrisome

12.VOW:

(A) argue

(B) claim

(C) please

(D) pledge

13.ASPIRATION:

(A) focus

(B) hope

(C) injury

(D) trend

14.BASHFUL:

(A) argumentative

(B) serious

(C) shy

(D) tolerant

15.SINISTER:

(A) elderly

(B) erratic

(C) uncomfortable

(D) wicked

16.DISCLOSE:

(A) hide

(B) remove

(C) reveal

(D) undress

17.CONGEAL:

(A) coagulate

(B) help

(C) recede

(D) weaken

18.INUNDATE:

(A) enter

(B) flood

(C) migrate

(D) strive

19.STEADFAST:

(A) constant

(B) optional

(C) quick

(D) restful

20.RUTHLESS:

(A) counterfeit

(B) unofficial

(C) unsparing

(D) victorious

Part Two — Sentence Completion

Directions: Select the word that best completes the sentence.

21.Myron was able to remain completely -------; he never took sides in any of the disagreements around the house.

(A) biased

(B) interested

(C) neutral

(D) thoughtful

22.Since the great drought left the soil completely useless, the people of that country were forced to ------- food from other countries.

(A) export

(B) import

(C) report

(D) sell

23.Because he was annoyed by even the smallest grammatical error, Mr. Jones reviewed all the students’ papers ------- before grading them.

(A) crudely

(B) helplessly

(C) inefficiently

(D) meticulously

24.Eric doesn’t merely dislike racism; he ------- it.

(A) abhors

(B) moderates

(C) questions

(D) studies

25.Sharon’s anger was too great: David simply could not ------- her with his charm.

(A) irritate

(B) manipulate

(C) pacify

(D) terrify

26.Even though the accident led to serious damage to our property, our ------- lawyer didn’t present a convincing argument and we received no compensation.

(A) discerning

(B) fatalistic

(C) incompetent

(D) professional

27.After months of petty disputes, the two countries finally decided to sit down at a table and have a ------- discussion.

(A) friendly

(B) hostile

(C) lengthy

(D) pressing

28.Although the thief claimed that he accidentally picked up the stolen watch, the jury judged his action -------.

(A) deliberate

(B) frantic

(C) impractical

(D) misguided

29.In order to be a good doctor, you don’t need to be ------- yourself, just as a good architect does not have to live in a fancy house.

(A) educated

(B) handsome

(C) healthy

(D) thoughtful

30.Pete ------- his coach when he followed up his winning season with an even better performance this year.

(A) disappointed

(B) gratified

(C) relieved

(D) upset

31.While many species, such as wolves, travel in groups, the cheetah is a ------- animal.

(A) dangerous

(B) pack

(C) solitary

(D) territorial

32.During his years in the Senate, Jones felt ------- about speaking up at all, while most of the other senators were aggressive and argumentative.

(A) blithe

(B) contented

(C) favorable

(D) timid

33.The politician’s speech was so ------- that nearly everyone in the room decided not to vote for him.

(A) feeble

(B) monotonous

(C) persuasive

(D) unique

34.The corporation did not have a ------- system for promotions; each department was free to use its own discretion in advancing employees.

(A) dignified

(B) favorable

(C) forgiving

(D) uniform

35.Only from years of training can a gymnast hope to become ------- enough to master Olympic-level techniques.

(A) agile

(B) mature

(C) passive

(D) strict

36.Though Mr. Fenster was known to be ------- toward his neighbors, he always welcomed their children as trick-or-treaters at Halloween.

(A) belligerent

(B) cheerful

(C) courteous

(D) direct

37.The ------- young man talked back to his parents and teachers alike.

(A) dreary

(B) insolent

(C) nervous

(D) respectful

38.While the painting’s brushstrokes seem -------, they are actually carefully planned out.

(A) flagrant

(B) haphazard

(C) intricate

(D) paltry

39.The Declaration of Independence is premised upon ------- principles, such as protecting life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.

(A) united

(B) lofty

(C) predictable

(D) variable

40.Our teacher advised us not to get too caught up in the ------- of information in the textbook, or we could lose the “big picture” of its theory.

(A) minutiae

(B) principles

(C) scope

(D) thought

STOP. If there is time, you may check your work in this section only.

Section 2

Quantitative Reasoning

37 Questions

Time: 35 Minutes

This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have completed Part One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer you select, remember to fill in the corresponding circle on your answer document.

Any figures that accompany the questions in this section may be assumed to be drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated that a particular figure is not drawn to scale. Letters such as x, y, and n stand for real numbers.

Part One — Word Problems

Each question in Part One consists of a word problem followed by four answer choices. You may write in your test booklet; however, you may be able to solve many of these problems in your head. Next, look at the four answer choices given and select the best answer.

EXAMPLE 1:

What is the value of the expression 1 + 3 × (4 ÷ 2) − 5 ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 8

Sample Answer

The correct answer is 2, so circle A is darkened.

Part Two — Quantitative Comparisons

All questions in Part Two are quantitative comparisons between the quantities shown in Column A and Column B. Using the information given in each question, compare the quantity in Column A to the quantity in Column B, and choose one of these four answer choices:

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.

(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.

(C) The two quantities are equal.

(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

EXAMPLE 2:

The quantity in Column A (6) is the same as the quantity in Column B (6), so circle C is darkened.

Sample Answer

EXAMPLE 3:

Since 10 < 2x < 16, 5 < x < 8. Thus, as x can equal 6 or 7, there is not enough information given to determine the relationship. Circle D is darkened.

Sample Answer

STOP. Do not go on until told to do so.

Part One — Word Problems

Directions: Choose the best answer from the four choices given.

1.54 × 3 =

(A) 123

(B) 150

(C) 162

(D) 172

2.What is the area of a square with a side of length 2 ?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

3.3 × 2 × 1 — (4 × 3 × 2) =

(A) 18

(B) 6

(C) —6

(D) —18

4.Vicky scored 80, 90, and 94 on her three tests. What was her average score?

(A) 81

(B) 88

(C) 90

(D) 93

5.Who bought the most books at the school fair?

(A) Sally

(B) Jesse

(C) Pete

(D) Mark

6.Sally and Mark together bought how many more books than Jesse?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 5

7. + =

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8.What is the value of the digit 7 in the number 4,678.02 ?

(A) 7

(B) 70

(C) 700

(D) 7,000

9.Jason has several books in his room, 20% of which are fiction. The other books are nonfiction. If he has 5 fiction books, how many nonfiction books does he have?

(A) 5

(B) 10

(C) 20

(D) 25

10. =

(A) 0.2

(B) 2

(C) 20

(D) 200

11.Which of the following is closest in value to 5 ?

(A) 4.5

(B) 5.009

(C) 5.01

(D) 5.101

12.Janice went to the butcher and bought six pounds of hamburger. If the bill was $18.50, which of the following is closest to the cost per pound of the hamburger?

(A) $2.00

(B) $3.00

(C) $5.00

(D) $6.00

13.Which of the following numbers is closest to the square root of 175 ?

(A) 9

(B) 13

(C) 22

(D) 30

14.Laurie was reading a book that had an illustration on every odd-numbered page. If there are 32 numbered pages in the book, how many illustrations are there?

(A) 15

(B) 16

(C) 17

(D) 31

15.If 6y + 8 = 20, what is the value of 3y + 4 ?

(A) 2

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 12

16.A lecture hall’s maximum capacity of 56 has increased by 75%. What is the new seating capacity after the increase?

(A) 42

(B) 70

(C) 98

(D) 112

17.When a number is divided by 8, the quotient is 11 and the remainder is 2. What is the number?

(A) 11

(B) 22

(C) 72

(D) 90

18.When did the greatest increase in rainfall occur in Miller County?

(A) Between 1942 and 1943

(B) Between 1943 and 1944

(C) Between 1944 and 1945

(D) Between 1945 and 1946

19.The temperature at 6 A.M. was 32°. If the temperature increased at a constant rate of 3° per hour all day, what was the temperature at 1 P.M.?

(A) 35°

(B) 43°

(C) 47°

(D) 53°

20.What is the volume of a box with length 4 cm, width 3 cm, and height 2 cm?

(A) 6 cubic centimeters

(B) 9 cubic centimeters

(C) 12 cubic centimeters

(D) 24 cubic centimeters

Part Two — Quantitative Comparisons

Directions: Using all information given in each question, compare the quantity in Column A to the quantity in Column B. All questions in Part Two have these answer choices:

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.

(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.

(C) The two quantities are equal.

(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Answer choices for all questions on this page.

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.

(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.

(C) The two quantities are equal.

(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

4x + 7 = 63

+ 6 = 15

Number of Cookies Eaten Each Day

Answer choices for all questions on this page.

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.

(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.

(C) The two quantities are equal.

(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Answer choices for all questions on this page.

(A) The quantity in Column A is greater.

(B) The quantity in Column B is greater.

(C) The two quantities are equal.

(D) The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

STOP. If there is time, you may check your work in this section only.

Section 3

Reading Comprehension

36 Questions

Time: 35 Minutes

This section contains six short reading passages. Each passage is followed by six questions based on its content. Answer the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You may write in the test booklet.

STOP. Do not go on until told to do so.

Questions 1—6

Click here to view this content as text.

1.The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) describe some of the things people used for transportation long ago

(B) describe the reasons that led to transportation discoveries

(C) explain the evolution of the sled

(D) give a detailed history of transportation

2.The passage suggests that prehistoric man used all of the following for carrying things EXCEPT

(A) animals

(B) children

(C) poles

(D) primitive sleds

3.The passage implies that early man

(A) was incapable of inventing the wheel any earlier than 3500 B.C.E.

(B) was interested in farming

(C) was interested in finding ways to help carry things

(D) was outgoing and friendly

4.It can be inferred from the passage that the reason animals were domesticated was

(A) to help carry large loads

(B) to move people and possessions around quickly

(C) to provide family pets

(D) to ward off danger

5.Which of the following describes the author’s attitude toward the invention of the wheel?

(A) Admiration

(B) Disdain

(C) Indifference

(D) Regret

6.The passage suggests that the sledge was

(A) a precursor to the sled

(B) invented in conjunction with the wheel

(C) made exclusively of animal skin

(D) the only tool used for transportation at the time

Questions 7—12

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7.The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) applaud conservation efforts

(B) explain the genetic difference between the bison and the buffalo

(C) explain why people confuse the buffalo and the bison

(D) give some background on the American bison

8.The passage implies that the primary difference between the buffalo and the bison is

(A) their geographic location

(B) their number

(C) their size

(D) when they existed

9.As used in line 19, the word “deemed” most closely means

(A) found

(B) hunted

(C) ruled

(D) eaten

10.According to the passage, what can be hoped for as long as the American bison is protected?

(A) They will be as plentiful as they once were.

(B) They will disturb the delicate ecological balance in the plains.

(C) They will face even greater dangers.

(D) They will probably not die out.

11.According to the passage, the primary reason that the American bison is no longer near extinction is

(A) conservation efforts

(B) lack of interest in hunting them

(C) loss of value of their fur

(D) the migration of the animals

12.In line 6, the author mentions the city of Buffalo in order to

(A) criticize a hunting practice

(B) establish the reason for a particular currency

(C) illustrate a common misunderstanding

(D) pinpoint the first sighting of buffalo in New York

Questions 13—18

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13.Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

(A) “Alexander the Great: King and Conqueror”

(B) “Aristotle: Teacher of the Kings”

(C) “Greek Culture”

(D) “The History of Macedonia”

14.As used in line 16, the word “civilized” most closely means

(A) barbaric

(B) educated

(C) friendly

(D) well-mannered

15.The tone of the passage is most like that found in

(A) a diary entry from an historian

(B) a letter from an archeologist

(C) a philosophy journal

(D) a reference book

16.According to the passage, one of the things that was so impressive about Alexander was

(A) his ability to teach

(B) his great integrity

(C) his handsome features

(D) his intelligence and culture

17.The passage suggests that Aristotle

(A) encouraged Alexander to spread culture

(B) helped foster Alexander’s love of books

(C) supported Alexander’s military career

(D) taught Alexander military strategy

18.According to the passage, when Alexander invaded a country, he

(A) enslaved citizens

(B) freed oppressed people

(C) spread Greek ideas

(D) toppled monuments

Questions 19—24

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19.The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) describe a common occurrence

(B) prescribe a treatment

(C) settle a dispute

(D) warn about a danger

20.According to the passage, one possible cause of hiccups is

(A) a sudden rush of air

(B) an irritant near the diaphragm

(C) breathing in and out of a paper bag

(D) the closing of the epiglottis

21.As used in line 24, “attacks” most closely means

(A) advances

(B) assaults

(C) bouts

(D) threats

22.The passage suggests that which of the following makes the “hic” sound of the hiccup?

(A) the diaphragm

(B) the lungs

(C) the stomach

(D) the vocal cords

23.According to the passage, the hiccups can be fatal due to

(A) fatigue from days of hiccupping

(B) home remedies that are toxic

(C) the humiliation of hiccupping for days on end

(D) the irritant to the diaphragm

24.The author mentions “hiccoughs” in line 2 in order to

(A) correct an improper usage

(B) define a technical term

(C) indicate an alternate spelling

(D) weaken a misguided argument

Questions 25—30

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25.The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) compare the hibernating dormouse with other hibernating animals

(B) debunk some common myths about hibernation

(C) discuss the discovery of the chemical that causes hibernation

(D) explore some basic information about hibernation

26.As used in line 7, the word “conserve” most closely means

(A) expend

(B) help

(C) reserve

(D) waste

27.According to the author, each of the following happens to a hibernating animal EXCEPT

(A) it goes into a dream state

(B) its body temperature drops

(C) its breathing slows

(D) its heartbeat slows

28.Which of the following can be inferred as a reason a hibernating animal may interrupt its hibernation?

(A) A day or two of stormy weather

(B) An overabundance of food

(C) A week in which there was no snow

(D) A week in which the temperature was well above freezing

29.According to the author, if the chemical that triggers hibernation is injected into an animal when it would not normally hibernate, the chemical may

(A) allow the animal to shed extra fat stores

(B) cause an out-of-season hibernation

(C) cause body functions to slow to a halt

(D) decrease an animal’s need for food

30.The tone of the passage is best described as

(A) amazed

(B) concerned

(C) indifferent

(D) informative

Questions 31—36

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31.The best title for the passage might be

(A) “A Brief History of Theatrical Productions”

(B) “Modern Theater: Adventures in Acting”

(C) “Shakespeare: Our Greatest Playwright”

(D) “The Excitement of Theater”

32.According to the passage, the primary reason that theater is so exciting is that

(A) it derives from a Greek custom

(B) it is performed live

(C) plays are often well written

(D) there are so many people working on it

33.The passage suggests which of the following about modern theater?

(A) It always draws great attention from the audience.

(B) It has been interpreted in a more varied fashion.

(C) It is less exciting than classic theater.

(D) There are mostly Shakespearean plays performed.

34.The author’s attitude toward theater can best be described as

(A) admiring

(B) ambivalent

(C) apathetic

(D) neutral

35.In line 1, the word “richest” is best understood to mean most

(A) diverse

(B) entertaining

(C) terrifying

(D) wealthy

36.The passage suggests that the plays of Shakespeare

(A) are more often given new interpretations today than at any other time

(B) are more popular today than during Shakespeare’s time

(C) have been performed in a variety of ways

(D) will always be considered the world’s greatest

STOP. If there is time, you may check your work in this section only.

Section 4

Mathematics Achievement

47 Questions

Time: 40 Minutes

Each question is followed by four suggested answers. Read each question and then decide which one of the four suggested answers is best.

Find the row of spaces on your answer document that has the same number as the question. In this row, mark the space having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. You may write in your test booklet.

SAMPLE QUESTION:

What is the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with a side length of 4 in.?

(A) 8 in.

(B)12 in.

(C)16 in.

(D)24 in.

Sample Answer

The correct answer is 12 in., so circle B is darkened.

STOP. Do not go on until told to do so.

1.In the decimal 0.0987, the digit 9 is equivalent to which of the following?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2.What is the least common multiple of 6, 9, and 12 ?

(A) 3

(B) 36

(C) 72

(D) 324

3.Which of the following equals 5 ?

(A) 30 — 12 ÷ 2 × (3 + 7)

(B) 30 — 12 ÷ (2 × 3 + 7)

(C) (30 — 12) ÷ 2 × 3 + 7

(D) 30 — 12 ÷ 2 × 3 — 7

4.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5.7 hours is how many minutes more than 6 hours?

(A) 45

(B) 60

(C) 75

(D) 90

6.What is the perimeter of equilateral triangle ABC shown above?

(A) 12

(B) 15

(C) 18

(D) It cannot be determined from the information given.

7.Which of the following is 20% of 200 ?

(A) 20

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 100

Questions 8—10 refer to the following chart.

8.What was the total amount of snowfall for the four-day period shown?

(A) 44 cm

(B) 40 cm

(C) 11 cm

(D) 10 cm

9.On which day was the snowfall the greatest?

(A) Thursday

(B) Wednesday

(C) Tuesday

(D) Monday

10.What was the average temperature for each day in the four-day period?

(A) 24°C

(B) 20°C

(C) 11°C

(D) 6°C

11. =

(A) 4

(B) 40

(C) 400

(D) 4000

12.If 5 × 31 = 100 + _, what number goes in the _?

(A) 55

(B) 51

(C) 50

(D) 36

13.Gwen planted six tomato plants. Half of them died. She then planted one more. How many tomato plants does Gwen have now?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

14.The public library charges one dollar to rent a video game overnight, with a fifty-cent charge for each day the video game is late. If Tracey returns a video game three days late, how much does she owe all together?

(A) $1.50

(B) $2.00

(C) $2.50

(D) $3.50

15.0.45 × 100 =

(A) 4,500

(B) 450

(C) 45

(D) 4.5

16.In triangle FGH shown above, the value of angle x, in degrees, is

(A) 30

(B) 45

(C) 50

(D) 90

17.If a dozen eggs cost $1.20, then 3 eggs cost

(A) 30¢

(B) 36¢

(C) 40¢

(D) $3.60

18.Boris and his friend Bruce collect baseball cards. If Bruce has 12 baseball cards and Boris has three times as many baseball cards as Bruce, what is the average number of cards in the boys’ collections?

(A) 7.5

(B) 18

(C) 24

(D) 48

19.What is the perimeter of a rectangle with length 3 and width 2 ?

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 12

20.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

21.If Kenny can run three miles in 45 minutes, how long will it take him to run five miles?

(A) 1 hour

(B) 1 hour 15 minutes

(C) 1 hour 30 minutes

(D) 2 hours

22.Which fraction is greater than ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

23.If the perimeter of a square is 36, what is its area?

(A) 16

(B) 36

(C) 64

(D) 81

24.Maureen studied for two hours before school. After school, she studied for twice as long as she had before school. What was the total number of hours she studied in the day?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 12

25. =

(A) 450

(B) 500

(C) 1,250

(D) 4,000

26.0.347 =

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

27.Which is the prime factorization of 36 ?

(A) 3 × 3 × 3 × 2

(B) 3 × 3 × 2 × 2

(C) 3 × 2 × 2 × 2

(D) 6 × 3 × 2

Questions 28—30 refer to the following chart.

28.How much would it cost two adults and one child under the age of 11 to travel one way from Monroeville to Perkins’ Corner on a weekend?

(A) $25.00

(B) $20.50

(C) $18.00

(D) $9.00

29.The price of a weekday peak fare ten-trip ticket is what percent less than the cost of purchasing ten one-way weekday peak fare tickets?

(A) 10%

(B) 20%

(C) 50%

(D) 100%

30.How much more does it cost for one adult to travel one way during the weekday peak fare period than for one adult to make the trip on the weekend?

(A) $0.50

(B) $0.75

(C) $1.00

(D) $1.50

31.Mr. Schroder swims laps at the community pool. It takes him 5 minutes to swim one lap. If he swims for 60 minutes without stopping, how many laps will he swim?

(A) 8

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 14

32.10³ =

(A) 10 × 3

(B) 10 + 10 + 10

(C) 10 × 10 × 10

(D)

33.A video game system initially cost $100. During a sale, the store reduced the price by 10%. Two days later, the store reduced the new price by 20%. What was the final price?

(A) $68

(B) $70

(C) $72

(D) $80

34.Mr. Hoffman has a rectangular box that is 10 centimeters wide, 30 centimeters long, and 4 centimeters high. What is the volume of the box?

(A) 44 cm³

(B) 120 cm³

(C) 300 cm³

(D) 1,200 cm³

35.Dr. Li sees an average of nine patients an hour for eight hours on Monday and for six hours on Tuesday. What is the average number of patients she sees on each day?

(A) 54

(B) 63

(C) 72

(D) 126

36.If q + 9 = 7 — p, what is the value of q + p ?

(A) —16

(B) —2

(C) 2

(D) 16

37.Which of the following is the product of two consecutive even integers?

(A) 0

(B) 15

(C) 22

(D) 30

38.Two triangles, ABC and XYZ, are similar. Triangle ABC has lengths of 3, 4, and 5. Which of the following could be the corresponding lengths of triangle XYZ ?

(A) 3, 3, and 3

(B) 4, 5, and 6

(C) 6, 8, and 10

(D) 13, 14, and 15

39.The perimeter of a square whose area is 169 centimeters is

(A) 52

(B) 48

(C) 44

(D) 42

40.If three-fourths of the 240 employees at Tigger’s Toys are at a party, how many of the employees are NOT at the party?

(A) 60

(B) 80

(C) 120

(D) 180

41.Jose and Greg are going on a 20-mile walk for charity. If they walk of the distance in the first two hours, and of the entire distance in the next hour and a half, how many miles do they have left to walk?

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 12

42.What is the perimeter of the shaded area in the figure above?

(A) 15

(B) 16

(C) 24

(D) It cannot be determined from the information given.

43.A field hockey player scored an average of 3 goals per game for 12 games. How many points did she score in all 12 games?

(A) 4

(B) 20

(C) 24

(D) 36

44.What is the volume of a box with length 8, width 4, and height ?

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 32

(D) 128

45.The price of a $30 hat is decreased by 20%. What is the new price of the hat?

(A) $10.00

(B) $12.00

(C) $20.00

(D) $24.00

46.There are 5 oatmeal cookies, 6 brownies, and 8 granola bars in a jar. If an item is selected at random, what is the probability of selecting a brownie?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

47.Which of the following is equivalent to = 6 — y ?

(A) 2x = 6 — 3y

(B) 3y — x = 6

(C) 2x + 3y = 18

(D) 2(x + 3y) = 18

STOP. If there is time, you may check your work in this section only.

Essay

You will have 30 minutes to plan and write an essay on the topic printed on the other side of this page. Do not write on another topic. An essay on another topic is not acceptable.

The essay is designed to give you an opportunity to show how well you can write. You should try to express your thoughts clearly. How well you write is much more important than how much you write, but you need to say enough for a reader to understand what you mean.

You will probably want to write more than a short paragraph. You should also be aware that a copy of your essay will be sent to each school that will be receiving your test results. You are to write only in the appropriate section of the answer sheet. Please write or print so that your writing may be read by someone who is not familiar with your handwriting.

You may make notes and plan your essay on the reverse side of the page. Allow enough time to copy the final form onto your answer sheet. You must copy the essay topic onto your answer sheet in the box provided.

Please remember to write only the final draft of the essay on your answer sheet and to write it in blue or black pen. Again, you may use cursive writing or you may print. Only pages 3 and 4 will be sent to the schools.

Directions continue on next page.

REMINDER: Please write this essay topic on the first few lines of your answer sheet.

Essay Topic

If you could change one thing about your country, what would you change and why?

·  Only write on this essay question

·  Only pages 3 and 4 will be sent to the schools

·  Only write in blue or black pen