SSAT & ISEE Prep 2023 - Princeton Review 2023

Lower level ISEE practice test
ISEE practice tests

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Section 1

Verbal Reasoning

34 Questions

Time: 20 Minutes

This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have completed Part One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer you select, fill in the corresponding circle on your answer document.

Part One — Synonyms

Each question in Part One consists of a word in capital letters followed by four answer choices. Select the one word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

SAMPLE QUESTION:

AGGRAVATE:

(A)apply

(B)enjoy

(C)irritate

(D)present

Sample Answer

Part Two — Sentence Completion

Each question in Part Two is made up of a sentence with one blank. Each blank indicates that a word or phrase is missing. The sentence is followed by four answer choices. Select the one word or phrase that best completes the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS:

Because Edgar enjoyed seeing new places, every winter he went on a ------ to a place he had never been.

(A)debate

(B)puzzle

(C)restoration

(D)voyage

Sample Answer

Doctors recommend that Americans exercise Sample Answer more in order to stay healthy, but unfortunately many people ------.

(A)watch, rather than play, professional sports

(B)do not eat enough fruits and vegetables

(C)do not choose to follow that advice

(D)work too many hours to enjoy leisure time

Sample Answer

STOP. Do not go on until told to do so.

Part One — Synonyms

Directions: Select the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

1.BASIN:

(A) desk

(B) frame

(D) sink

2.DRENCH:

(A) clean

(B) rain

(D) twist

3.HASTILY:

(A) happily

(B) passively

(D) quietly

4.HEAP:

(A) grain

(B) imprint

(D) volume

5.ADORN:

(A) average

(B) decorate

(D) visit

6.UNFURL:

(A) close

(B) flap

(D) spread out

7.NOVICE:

(A) beginner

(B) player

(D) story

8.COMPREHEND:

(A) compare

(B) speak

(D) wonder

9.MALICE:

(A) fear

(B) hatred

(D) opinion

10.UNKEMPT:

(A) free

(B) frequent

(D) obvious

11.RUSE:

(A) laugh

(B) partner

(D) trick

12.OBSOLETE:

(A) historical

(B) old-fashioned

(D) uncommon

13.WILY:

(A) careful

(B) crafty

(D) thin

14.BRITTLE:

(A) breakable

(B) lumpy

(D) small

15.ORATOR:

(A) curator

(B) listener

(D) speaker

16.POLL:

(A) argument

(B) discussion

(D) survey

17.PLEA:

(A) appeal

(B) explanation

(D) response

Part Two — Sentence Completion

Directions: Select the word that best completes the sentence.

18.Sasha’s friends think she is outgoing and talkative, but when she meets people for the first time she is often -------.

(A) friendly

(B) privileged

(D) sociable

19.Ms. Lin reviewed all the essays so that she could ------- each student’s writing.

(A) deny

(B) emphasize

(D) ignore

20.A snapping turtle’s neck can ------- to catch fish far away from its body.

(A) blend

(B) extend

(D) wander

21.The young man dressed carefully for his job interview because he wanted to ------- the interviewer.

(A) annoy

(B) discourage

(D) impress

22.Scientists spend a lot of time studying ants, bees, and other ------- insects that live and work together in large groups.

(A) aquatic

(B) social

(D) wingless

23.Because the domestic cat cleans its fur thoroughly with its rough tongue, it rarely becomes -------.

(A) distracted

(B) soiled

(D) washed

24.Everyone said Jaquinta was an ------- person because she always asked a lot of questions.

(A) inquisitive

(B) intense

(D) unpredictable

25.Although Wanda has taken violin lessons for three years, her ------- is actually to play sports.

(A) possibility

(B) preference

(D) routine

26.People who obey the law and try not to hurt anyone are not likely to become -------.

(A) happy

(B) infamous

(D) serene

27.At one time, Western movies were released -------, but now they are hardly ever made.

(A) frequently

(B) informally

(D) seldom

28.Mr. Thomas placed celery in colored water in order to ------- the way plants can absorb liquids.

(A) compress

(B) cover

(D) ignore

29.Most goods were produced in people’s homes before industrialization, but as the factory system became common, ------- production of goods decreased.

(A) domestic

(B) energetic

(D) high-speed

30.Frederick Church built a large Moorish home that was ------- as a visitor came up the long driveway, but came into view suddenly at the end.

(A) beautiful

(B) concealed

(D) visible

31.To keep Cassidy’s baby sister safe once she begins to crawl, her family will -------.

(A) take lots of pictures

(B) stay close to the ground

(D) baby-proof the house

32.Even though most of the students looked confused, the teacher -------.

(A) wondered what she would have for lunch

(B) explained the solution to the problem a second time

(D) moved on to a new topic without asking whether anyone had questions

33.Although the weather forecast predicted freezing temperatures and wet snow, Jason -------.

(A) decided to learn how to ski

(B) did not wear a coat when he went outside

(D) put on his favorite wool sweater

34.Because Ronnie was terrified of the ocean and never learned to swim, -------.

(A) she did not accept an invitation to her friend’s beach house

(B) her parents never took her on their vacations to Kansas

(D) her brother decided to try out for the Olympic swimming team

STOP. If there is time, you may check your work in this section only.

Section 2

Quantitative Reasoning

38 Questions

Time: 35 Minutes

Each question consists of a word problem followed by four answer choices. Read each question and then decide which one of the four suggested answers is best.

Find the row of spaces on your answer document that has the same number as the question. In this row, mark the space having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. You may write in your test booklet.

EXAMPLE 1:

What is the value of the expression 6 + (8 ÷ 2) ?

(A) 2 + 5

(B) 2 × 5

(D) 3 × 4

The correct answer is 10, so circle B is darkened.

Sample Answer

EXAMPLE 2:

Which could be the dimensions of a rectangle with an area of 34 cm² ?

(A) 2 cm × 17 cm

(B) 3 cm × 12 cm

(D) 5 cm × 7 cm

The correct answer is 2 cm × 17 cm, so circle A is darkened.

Sample Answer

STOP. Do not go on until told to do so.

1.Which is seven hundred ninety thousand twelve?

(A) 7,912

(B) 79,012

(D) 790,012

2.Which of the following must be true of triangle DEF above, which is drawn to scale?

(A) x = 45°

(B) = 2

(D) x + y > 90°

3.Which number shows 9 in the thousands place?

(A) 1,039

(B) 7,920

(D) 94,016

4.Which of the following is the product of two distinct prime numbers?

(A) 1

(B) 4

(D) 14

5.Which is the smallest fraction?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6.The number of smaller cubes that make up the solid object above is

(A) 36

(B) 108

(D) 46,656

7.It takes Ms. Weiss ten minutes to drive 4 miles. If she continues to drive at the same speed for 25 more minutes, how many more miles will she have driven?

(A) 4

(B) 10

(D) 25

8.A painter uses 3 gallons of paint to cover 2 square yards on the inside of a house. How many gallons will it take for him to cover a wall that is 12 feet tall and 60 feet long? Note: 3 feet = 1 yard.

(A) 40

(B) 120

(D) 240

9.Which of the following is equal to ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10.When a number is divided by 8, the remainder is 3. Which could be the number?

(A) 11

(B) 14

(D) 21

11.Which of the following equals 90 ?

(A) 5 × 18

(B) 5 × 16

(D) 9¹⁰

12.In which region of the figure above would you find Stephanie, a fourth-grade student who walks to school and buys her lunch in the cafeteria?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) D

13.Which of the following shows a line of symmetry?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14.What is the area of the shaded region in the figure above?

(A) 12

(B) 13

(D) 24

15.In the multiplication problem shown above, if A and M represent distinct positive integers, which of the following is the value of A ?

(A) 0

(B) 4

(D) 9

16.What is the perimeter of rectangle ABCD above?

(A) 5

(B) 11

(D) 24

17.Which shows 7 in the hundreds and thousandths places?

(A) 2,793.4701

(B) 5,704.2371

(D) 8,072.7634

18.Which is seventy two thousand fourteen?

(A) 7,214

(B) 72,014

(D) 720,014

19.Which point on the number line above indicates the correct placement of ?

(A) A

(B) B

(D) D

20.Which of the following is closest in value to 7 ?

(A) 6.8

(B) 7.009

(D) 7.1

21.The length of AD in the figure shown above is

(A) 30

(B) 32

(D) 46

22.Which of the following shows three-fourths?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

23.Which of the following is NOT equal to 16 ?

(A) 22 × 4

(B) 23

(D) 42

24.Which is the largest fraction?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

25.Which lunch menu can be found in the shaded part of the figure above?

(A) Yogurt and soda

(B) Ham sandwich and apple juice

(D) Cheese sandwich and water

26.Which of the following shows a reflection?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

27.Which of the following produces a remainder of 3 ?

(A) 72 ÷ 9

(B) 57 ÷ 6

(D) 39 ÷ 7

28.Sam’s Pizza uses 24 slices of pepperoni on 8 pieces of pizza. How many slices of pepperoni would be used on 6 pieces of pizza?

(A) 3

(B) 12

(D) 48

29.Evan is making a quilt out of squares of material with sides measuring 6 inches. How many squares will he need to make a quilt that is 6 feet long and 5 feet wide? Note: 1 foot = 12 inches.

(A) 15

(B) 30

(D) 120

30.What is the area of the figure shown above?

(A) 24

(B) 35

(D) 60

31.Which of the following shows 48 as a product of primes?

(A) 3 × 8

(B) 24 × 3

(D) 2 × 3

32.Which of the following CANNOT be the length of side MN in triangle MNO, shown above?

(A) 8

(B) 11

(D) 19

33.When a number is divided by 8, the remainder is 2. What is the number?

(A) 11

(B) 22

(D) 90

34.What is the perimeter of a square with a side of length 2 ?

(A) 8

(B) 6

(D) 2

35.Which of these shapes would fall into the shaded region of the figure shown above?

(A) A red right triangle

(B) A red equilateral triangle

(D) A blue circle

36.Melissa had 20 words on her spelling test. If she spelled of the words incorrectly, how many words did she spell correctly?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 16

37.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

38.The distance from Amy’s home to Los Angeles is 2,281 miles. The distance from Dave’s house to Los Angeles is 1,912 miles. How much closer is Dave’s house to Los Angeles than Amy’s house?

(A) 379

(B) 369

(D) 269

STOP. If there is time, you may check your work in this section only.

Section 3

Reading Comprehension

25 Questions

Time: 25 Minutes

This section contains five short reading passages. Each passage is followed by five questions based on its content. Answer the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. You may write in the test booklet.

STOP. Do not go on until told to do so.

Questions 1—5

Click here to view this content as text.

1.At the beginning of the story, the narrator’s brother thinks the noise is made by

(A) a monster

(B) his mother

(D) the narrator

2.When the narrator says, “Besides, I’d have to walk past the bathroom,” (lines 15—16), you know that he

(A) is afraid of getting in trouble

(B) is not familiar with the house

(D) would rather go to the kitchen

3.In line 21, “marched” most nearly means

(A) hopped loudly

(B) ran sneakily

(D) walked with a purpose

4.Why does the narrator laugh out loud (line 23) when he gets to the bathroom?

(A) He is amused because he sees that it is just the dog making a noise.

(B) He is happy that there is nothing making a noise in the bathroom.

(D) His brother has just told him a good joke.

5.According to the passage, the dog was in the bathtub because

(A) he needed a bath

(B) he was hungry

(D) he was trying to hide from the thunder

Questions 6—10

This story is adapted from an African folktale that explains why the sun and moon are in the sky.

Click here to view this content as text.

6.The primary purpose of this passage is to

(A) describe how to build a large and expensive palace

(B) describe how water flows in a flood

(D) provide information about sea creatures

7.The sun and moon can best be described as

(A) assertive

(B) friendly

(D) selfish

8.In the beginning of the story, why does the water never come to visit the sun and moon?

(A) The sun and moon have never invited the water to their home.

(B) The water does not really like the sun and moon.

(D) The water thinks there is not enough space where the sun and moon live.

9.When the water says “my people” in line 9, he is referring to

(A) the creatures that live in the trees

(B) the creatures that live in the water

(D) the workers who build the palace

10.In line 38, “perched” most nearly means

(A) got very thirsty

(B) laughed heartily

(D) sat on the edge

Questions 11—15

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11.According to the passage, the purpose of the drones is to

(A) care for the hive

(B) gather food

(D) supervise the workers

12.According to the passage, the purpose of the honey and pollen is to

(A) attract a queen to the hive

(B) fertilize flowers

(D) provide food for the hive

13.According to the passage, the hive is an example of a social system because

(A) different members of the hive perform different jobs, yet they work together

(B) the queen rules over all the bees

(D) there is no conflict in the hive

14.The word “cohesive” in line 5 most nearly means

(A) connected

(B) hardworking

(D) sticky

15.The tone of the passage is most like that found in a

(A) diary entry of a modern naturalist

(B) general science textbook

(D) letter to a friend

Questions 16—20

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16.Which title would be most appropriate for the passage?

(A) “An Eccentric Woman”

(B) “Isabella Stewart Gardner—Museum Maker”

(D) “Two Deaths in a Family”

17.In line 17, the word “colorful” most nearly means

(A) beautiful

(B) brilliant

(D) vivid

18.The passage suggests that Isabella Stewart Gardner began collecting art

(A) after the death of her husband

(B) after the death of her son

(D) to spend her husband’s money

19.According to the passage, the museum built by Isabella Stewart Gardner was used for all of the following EXCEPT

(A) a place for artists to congregate

(B) a place for art to be viewed

(D) her home

20.The author’s attitude toward Isabella Stewart Gardner can best be described as

(A) admiring

(B) critical

(D) skeptical

Questions 21—25

Click here to view this content as text.

21.The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) convince the reader that women are able to work and study outside the home

(B) describe how one woman focused on helping to improve others’ lives

(D) show that everyone needs to find a way to help others

22.According to the passage, during Gilman’s life women did not have

(A) any ideas about how to change things

(B) any way to publish their writing

(D) many options for school and work

23.It can be inferred from lines 8—10 that Gilman

(A) did not like to read by herself

(B) planned to become a writer and speaker when she was young

(D) was not able to attend school very often as a child

24.The main point of the third paragraph (lines 14—24) is that

(A) Gilman enjoyed writing and speaking to large groups

(B) Gilman worked to spread ideas about how women could live fuller lives

(D) most women did not have access to education and well-paying jobs

25.Based on the information in the passage, you could most likely expect one of Gilman’s books to be titled

(A) Europe: A History

(B) Growing Up Rich

(D) Women and Economics

STOP. If there is time, you may check your work in this section only.

Section 4

Mathematics Achievement

30 Questions

Time: 30 Minutes

Each question is followed by four suggested answers. Read each question and then decide which one of the four suggested answers is best.

SAMPLE QUESTION:

Which number is divisible by 7 without a remainder?

(A)26

(B)35

(D)60

The correct answer is 35, so circle B is darkened.

Sample Answer

STOP. Do not go on until told to do so.

1.6 hours is how many minutes more than 5 hours?

(A) 1

(B) 30

(D) 90

2.Which numeral represents twenty-four thousand, six hundred and three?

(A) 2,463

(B) 20,463

(D) 24,630

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Questions 4—6 refer to the pictograph shown below.

4.How many letters did Mrs. Adler deliver on Tuesday?

(A) None

(B) 2

(D) 6

5.How many more letters did Mrs. Adler deliver on Monday than on Wednesday?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

6.How many letters did Mrs. Adler deliver on Monday and Tuesday?

(A) 24

(B) 18

(D) 8

7.In the decimal 0.42537, the digit 2 is equivalent to which of the following?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8.What is the perimeter of rectangle QRST shown above?

(A) 7

(B) 10

(D) 14

9. =

(A) 400

(B) 40

(D)

10.3 × 64 =

(A) 128

(B) 182

(D) 256

11.3 × 2 + 4 =

(A) 7

(B) 10

(D) 16

12.Wu had 18 marbles. He lost half of them, and then his friend gave him 3 more marbles. How many marbles does Wu have now?

(A) 6

(B) 9

(D) 21

13.Ian visits the store and buys 2 pads of paper, 1 notebook, and 3 boxes of pencils. How much money does he spend?

(A) $10.00

(B) $8.00

(D) $4.75

14. × 400 =

(A) 20

(B) 40

(D) 120

15.Evan has 26 comic books. Mark has twice as many comic books as Evan has. How many comic books does Mark have?

(A) 13

(B) 26

(D) 52

16.If 12 eggs cost $1.80, then how much will 36 eggs cost?

(A) $0.60

(B) $1.80

(D) $5.40

17.In triangle FGH shown above, the value of angle x in degrees is

(A) 30

(B) 45

(D) 180

Questions 18—19 refer to the following graph.

18.On which day did Alicia spend the same amount of time doing homework as she spent on Monday?

(A) Tuesday

(B) Wednesday

(D) Friday

19.How many more hours did Alicia spend doing her homework on Tuesday than on Wednesday?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

20.6 × 20 = 150 — _______

(A) 130

(B) 90

(D) 10

21.Which fraction is less than ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

22.All of the following are multiples of 3 EXCEPT

(A) 120

(B) 210

(D) 512

Questions 23—24 refer to the graph shown below.

23.How many students chose vanilla ice cream as their favorite?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

24.Which flavor was the favorite of the greatest number of students?

(A) Peppermint

(B) Vanilla

(D) Strawberry

25.If the perimeter of a square is 36, what is the length of one side?

(A) 6

(B) 8

(D) 18

26.If 1 pound = 16 ounces, which of the following is equivalent to 2.5 pounds?

(A) 18 ounces

(B) 24 ounces

(D) 40 ounces

27.Jessica worked 5 hours on Tuesday and 3 hours on Wednesday. How many hours did she work on Tuesday and Wednesday?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 9

Questions 28—30 refer to the price list shown below.

28.How much will it cost for 2 adults and 1 child to ride the Fast Ferry on a weekday afternoon?

(A) $30.00

(B) $27.00

(D) $18.00

29.How much less will it cost 1 adult and 2 children to ride the Fast Ferry on a weekday afternoon than it would cost them to ride on a weekday morning?

(A) $6.00

(B) $8.00

(D) $18.00

30.The price for 2 adults and 1 child to ride the Fast Ferry on a weekend is what fractional part of the price for 2 adults and 1 child to ride the Fast Ferry on a weekday afternoon?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

STOP. If there is time, you may check your work in this section only.

Essay

You will have 30 minutes to plan and write an essay on the topic printed on the other side of this page. Do not write on another topic. An essay on another topic is not acceptable.

The essay is designed to give you an opportunity to show how well you can write. You should try to express your thoughts clearly. How well you write is much more important than how much you write, but you need to say enough for a reader to understand what you mean.

You will probably want to write more than a short paragraph. You should also be aware that a copy of your essay will be sent to each school that will be receiving your test results. You are to write only in the appropriate section of the answer sheet. Please write or print so that your writing may be read by someone who is not familiar with your handwriting.

You may make notes and plan your essay on the reverse side of the page. Allow enough time to copy the final form onto your answer sheet. You must copy the essay topic onto your answer sheet in the box provided.

Please remember to write only the final draft of the essay on your answer sheet and to write it in blue or black pen. Again, you may use cursive writing or you may print. Only pages 3 and 4 will be sent to the schools.

REMINDER: Please write this essay topic on the first few lines of your answer sheet.

Essay Topic

If you could plan your perfect vacation, what would you do?

· Only write on this essay question

· Only pages 3 and 4 will be sent to the schools

· Only write in blue or black pen

SSAT & ISEE Prep 2023 - Princeton Review 2023

Lower level ISEE practice testISEE practice tests

Lower level ISEE practice test
ISEE practice tests