CliffsNotes CBEST - BTPS TESTING Ph.D., Jerry Bobrow Ph.D. & 8 more 2021

Section I: Reading
Practice Test 2

50 Questions

80 Minutes

Directions: A question or number of questions follows each of the passages in this section. Using only the stated or implied information given in the statement or passage, answer each question by choosing the best answer from among the five choices given. Mark your answers on a sheet of paper.

Questions 1—2 refer to the following passage.

Parallax is a range-finding technique used to measure the distance to some nearby stars from the annual angular displacement of a nearby star against the background of more distant, relatively fixed stars. Parallax can be experienced by noting the apparent position of a vertical pencil in front of your face with only your right eye, then your left eye; the pencil shifts across the background.

1. In order to make this passage clearer to a general audience, the author could do which of the following?

A. Concede that parallax is not the only range-finding technique used by astronomers

B. Further define “annual angular displacement” in nontechnical terms

C. Cite references from Scientific American

D. Explain that stars are never even “relatively” fixed

E. Eliminate the demonstration of using a pencil

2. In the second sentence, the author suggests which of the following?

A. Most people have never really considered the position of a pencil.

B. The perceived position of any object varies according to the point from which it is observed.

C. Parallax is also a technique used by nonscientists.

D. One eye is a more reliable estimator of distance than the other eye.

E. A pencil is similar to a star in certain ways.

Questions 3—4 refer to the following passage.

(1) At the outset of the Civil War, the North possessed a large population, a superior rail system, a greater industrial capacity, greater capital assets, and a larger food-production capability than did the South. (2) Despite the North’s apparent economic superiority, the South did possess a few military advantages. (3) Among them were fighting a defensive war on their home ground and having an established military tradition. (4) Most of the leaders of the pre-war army were from the South, whereas the North had to train a new military leadership.

3. Which of the following best explains the logical purpose of Sentence 4?

A. To support the general contention that most of the talent in the United States was concentrated in the South

B. To hint that the North found many of its military leaders in the South

C. To argue that the North entered the war without leaders

D. To underscore the importance of the South’s “established military tradition”

E. To show that the South probably should have won the war

4. The author implies which of the following points in the passage?

A. The North did not have an economic advantage at the end of the war.

B. Prior to the beginning of the war, the South was already fighting another war and seasoning its leaders.

C. Almost all the banks in the United States were located in the North.

D. Military advantages are much more important than economic advantages.

E. The North had a greater capacity for enduring a prolonged conflict.

Question 5 is based on the following passage.

Cinco de Mayo (the 5th of May) is observed in many states with celebrations of Mexican culture, food, music, and customs. Cinco de Mayo is popularly misunderstood as Mexican Independence Day. Contrary to popular belief, Cinco de Mayo actually commemorates the victory of the poorly equipped Mexican militia over the occupying French army in 1862. Mexico had incurred a large debt to France and other European nations following the Mexican-American War (1846—1848). France used the debt crisis in an attempt to expand its empire and invade Mexico.

5. Which of the following best summarizes the main purpose of the passage?

A. A description of a period of Mexican war history is preceded by an introduction.

B. A faulty argument is presented, then corrected by the author.

C. A misconception of a commemoration is corrected, then background about it is provided.

D. A rundown of events commemorated by a modern holiday is given, followed by a more detailed explanation of why the events occurred.

E. An ongoing controversy is presented, then the history behind the controversy is explained.

Questions 6—7 refer to the following passage.

(1) Many of Vincent van Gogh’s “night study” paintings depict the sweeping evening view outside his window. ______________________________________ (2) In these best-known paintings, it is the vibrant strokes of yellow that catch the viewer’s eye and linger in the mind. (3) However, in some of the artist’s signature works, such as “Starry Night” and his series of sunflower paintings, the formerly-brilliant yellow hues are now fading on the canvas, changing to an unattractive muddy-looking brown. (4) An international team of European scientists is now struggling to find the cause and, even more important, to ascertain if the process can be reversed. (5) Restoration scientists at least hope to mitigate the damage to preserve the paintings.

6. Which of the following is an unstated assumption in this passage?

A. Vincent van Gogh utilized pale shades of yellow in his paintings.

B. The effect of the yellow hue van Gogh used is to repel the eye and to make the paintings less memorable.

C. A number of paintings by Vincent van Gogh, such as “Starry Night” and the sunflower series, are not well-known.

D. Paintings by Van Gogh are treasured by many people and, thus, their restoration is considered to be very important.

E. An international team of European scientists struggled for years before they finally discovered the cause of the damage.

7. Which sentence, if inserted into the blank line between Sentence 1 and Sentence 2, would be most consistent with the author’s purpose?

A. It is suggested that the large white star in van Gogh’s night paintings is the star of Venus.

B. The magical interpretations of the night sky were often painted from memory.

C. The harsh interpretations of the daylight were often painted from memory.

D. The paintings portrayed the daylight shadows from the sun.

E. The paintings were his least-known paintings.

Questions 8—9 refer to the following passage.

Author Bill Bryson attempts to explain Einstein’s famous equation (E = mc²) by saying that mass and energy have equivalence, or that “energy is liberated matter, and matter is energy waiting to happen.” The c² refers to the speed of light squared—a “truly huge number.” This means that there is an enormous amount of energy in every material thing.

Among other things, Einstein’s theory explains how a star could burn for billions of years and not use up its fuel. It also explains how radiation works; a small lump of uranium can throw out streams of energy “without melting away like an ice cube.” The most energetic thing we have produced so far is a uranium bomb, and it releases 1% of the energy it would if we could successfully “liberate” it.

8. The main purpose of the passage is to

A. explain the science behind and destructive potential of the uranium bomb.

B. provide the reader with a basic understanding of Einstein’s famous equation.

C. emphasize Einstein’s pivotal role in the history of physics.

D. present the background for one possible explanation of how stars can burn for billions of years.

E. discuss the mysteries of the relationship of mass and energy.

9. According to the passage, the c² in Einstein’s equation represents the

A. speed of energy squared.

B. relationship between energy and radiation.

C. necessary amount of energy for the production of radiation.

D. speed at which matter is converted into energy.

E. amount of energy per unit of mass in all material things.

Questions 10—11 refer to the following passage.

(1) The doctrine of association had been the basis for explaining memories and how one idea leads to another. (2) Aristotle provided the basic law, association by contiguity. (3) In other words, when you experience two items contiguously, they become linked in your mind. (4) When you hear the word table, you are likely to think of chair. (5) In a traumatic example, veterans may carry an association of loud noises to bombings. (6) In each case, the two items have been experienced contiguously—in the same place or at the same time, or both.

10. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

A. Many of the associations that Aristotle posited have become part of modern experience.

B. A number of adults have had no experiences and therefore have no memories.

C. When one smells coffee, one is not likely to think of eating a bagel.

D. The doctrine of association largely depends on experiencing things contiguously.

E. Guns always remind people of an experience in which someone or something was killed.

11. Which of the following statements, if true, would most weaken the argument of the passage?

A. Many people tend to become depressed when the weather is rainy.

B. Very few researchers question the doctrine of association.

C. More recent studies show that word-association responses are random and not determined by experience.

D. Of 100 people tested, 96 of those given the word “bread” responded with the word “butter.”

E. Psychologists have found that people have many common associations.

Question 12 refers to the following passage.

The political party is a voluntary association of voters whose purpose in a democracy is to control the policies of government by electing to public office persons of its membership.

12. The preceding passage would be most likely to appear in which of the following?

A. An introductory text on political science

B. A special-interest magazine

C. A manual of rules for legislators

D. A piece of campaign literature

E. A brief essay discussing the president’s most recent news conference

Questions 13—15 are based on the following passage.

(1) Some “Kermode” black bears have white fur—but why? (2) This phenomenon (“Kermodism”) is triggered by a recessive mutation at the MC1R gene, meaning both parents must carry the gene, even if the parents themselves do not have white fur.

(3) One theory for the source of the trait was the “glacial bear” hypothesis: that Kermodism represented a remnant adaptation from the last great ice age. (4) At that time, most of modern-day British Columbia was still icebound, and a white coat may have offered camouflage. (5) But the glacial bear theory raised a question: Why didn’t the white fur trait die out when the glaciers receded?

(6) Researchers have recently proved that the white coat of these “spirit bears” gives them an advantage when fishing. (7) Although white and black bears tend to have the same success after dark, scientists Dan and Reimchen Klinka noticed that white-furred bears caught almost 10% more fish during the daytime. (8) “The salmon are less concerned about a white object as seen from below the surface,” Reimchen speculates. (9) That may answer part of the question about why the white-fur trait continues to flourish today. (10) If salmon are a coastal bear’s primary fat and protein source, a successful female can feast on salmon to store more fat for winter, potentially increasing the number of cubs she can produce.

13. Which of the following titles best summarizes the contents of the passage as a whole?

A. “A Study in Contrast: White Bears, Kermode Bears, and Spirit Bears”

B. “Feeding and Hunting Habits of Spirit Bears”

C. “Why Do Black Bears Produce White Offspring?”

D. “Black Bears Before and After the Great Ice Age”

E. “An Overview of Recessive Mutation Traits in Spirit Bears”

14. In the context of the passage, the purpose of the second paragraph is to

A. expand on a secondary theme of the passage introduced earlier.

B. provide statistics that support claims made earlier in the passage.

C. propose a potential solution to the passage’s main question, then discredit it.

D. acknowledge that the mystery of white bears may never be adequately solved.

E. present the most currently accepted solution to the passage’s main question.

15. According to the author, the “’glacial bear’ hypothesis” (Sentence 3) is unconvincing because it explains the

A. behavior of white bears but not black bears.

B. reason spirit bears are white, but not how they survived the ice age.

C. original emergence of white bears but not their continued survival.

D. advantage that white bears have in daytime fishing but not in reproduction.

E. method by which some black bears are born white, but not the reason why.

Question 16 is based on the following passage.

A two percent budget cut ordered by the governor will seriously hamper the operation of the state university system, but, while education will be hurt, the state budget in general will remain relatively unaffected.

16. The author’s attitude toward the governor’s decision regarding education is most likely

A. neutral.

B. antagonistic.

C. understanding.

D. supportive.

E. inconsistent.

Questions 17—21 refer to the following passage about The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn by Mark Twain, 1884.

(1) Some tried to spoil the centennial celebration of one of America’s greatest novels, The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn, by claiming that it and author Mark Twain were racist. (2) Most readers over the years have viewed this masterpiece as anything but offensive to Blacks. (3) The misunderstanding of some may lie in Twain’s use of irony and the crude vernacular of river folk to tell the now-famous story.

(4) Any doubts about Mr. Twain’s views on slavery should have been dispelled by an even later work about an eccentric but clever lawyer, Pudd’nhead Wilson, in 1894, or even one particular letter from Mr. Twain himself.

(5) Written the same year as Finn in 1884, the letter details Twain’s offer to pay the expenses of one of the first Black students at Yale Law School. (6) “I do not believe I would very cheerfully help a white student who would ask a benevolence of a stranger, but I do not feel so about the other color,” Twain wrote. (7) “We have ground the manhood out of them and the shame is ours, not theirs; and we should pay for it.”

(8) On this 100th anniversary of his death, Twain might find ironic delight in the timing of the publication of his letter validating his commitment to racial equality.

17. It can be concluded that the author wrote the passage

A. to promote the sale of The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn.

B. 100 years after Mark Twain’s death.

C. to exonerate those who claim Twain’s writing was racist.

D. to tell a lesser-known story from Twain’s personal life.

E. as a condemnation of racism.

18. According to the passage, Mark Twain offered to pay the expenses of a Yale Law School student (Sentence 5) because the student

A. was an exemplary student who deserved the opportunity.

B. had the courage to ask him for help.

C. was rightfully owed the assistance of whites.

D. was poor and couldn’t afford the tuition.

E. was also a severe critic of slavery.

19. As used in the first paragraph (Sentence 3), Twain’s use of irony appears to have

A. confused some readers about his intentions.

B. made the language of the river folk difficult to understand.

C. convinced most readers that his work was actually racist.

D. provided detractors with valid reason to condemn Pudd’nhead Wilson.

E. appeased his critics about his feelings regarding slavery.

20. The term centennial celebration (Sentence 1) is used to mean

A. an annual party held in Mark Twain’s honor.

B. an anniversary of Twain’s Pudd’nhead Wilson.

C. the 100th anniversary of Mark Twain’s birth.

D. the 100th publication of The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn.

E. the 100th anniversary of the publication of The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn.

21. In the context of the passage, Pudd’nhead Wilson was

A. a Yale law student Twain befriended and financially assisted.

B. in receipt of a letter written by Twain.

C. a character in one of Twain’s works that critics believed to be racist.

D. the runaway slave in The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn.

E. a clever but somewhat bizarre fictional character.

Questions 22—26 refer to the following passage.

(1) The question might be asked, “How can we know what is ’really’ real?” (2) Defined phenomenologically, “reality” becomes purely a hypothetical concept that accounts for the totality of all conditions imposed by the external world. (3) But since other people are part of our experiences, it is possible to form a collective consensus in a group of similarly perceived phenomena. (4) In fact, we often ignore the assumptions of people (or groups) who do not agree with our own reality. (5) However, such a lack of consensus also affords us the opportunity to reflect upon our own reality.

(6) To change our reality facilitates a change in our phenomenal world of experience. (7) Scientists, for instance, continue to methodically develop a consensus about scientific procedures and conclusions. (8) If successful in this quest, such conclusions constitute a factual body of sharable knowledge. (9) The scientific method often contrasts mystical religious experiences. (10) For example, mystical experiences may not always be communicable to others. (11) However, even a scientific researcher must interpret research findings within a unique, personal phenomenological field. (12) To use a cliché, truth, like beauty, exists in the eyes of the beholder.

22. Which of the following statements is a supporting example of the central point of the passage?

A. Certain established scientific facts have not changed for hundreds of years.

B. Part of the phrase in the last sentence is from a book by Margaret Wolfe Hungerford.

C. Reality is a given, unique experience in an individual’s phenomenal world.

D. People think of their enemies in war as cruel and regard their own soldiers as virtuous.

E. The fans at baseball games often see things exactly as the umpire sees them.

23. Applying the argument of the passage, one could define a political party as

A. a political group to which few scientists belong.

B. a consensus group whose individuals share a similar view of political reality.

C. a consensus group whose members are misled about what is actually “real,” politically.

D. in touch with reality if it is a majority party and out of touch with reality if it is a minority party.

E. a collection of individuals who are each fundamentally unsure about what political reality is.

24. Which of the following best describes what the author means by “’reality’ becomes purely a hypothetical concept” in Sentence 2?

A. As for reality, there is none.

B. One can think about reality but never really experience it.

C. Reality is not objective.

D. Reality is a figment of one’s imagination.

E. Only scientists know reality.

25. According to the passage, one difference between a scientist and a mystic is that

A. the scientist sees truth as facts; the mystic sees truth as beauty.

B. scientists are unwilling and unable to lend importance to religious experiences.

C. the work of the mystic does not have consequences that affect individuals.

D. the scientist is concerned with sharable knowledge, and the mystic may not be.

E. scientists cannot believe in anything mystical.

26. Which of the following best explains how the author might answer the question “How can we know what is ’really’ real?” (Sentence 1)?

A. If no one sees things our way, we are detached from reality.

B. Whatever we are aware of can legitimately be called real.

C. What is “really” real is whatever a group of individuals believe.

D. We can, if we use the scientific method.

E. We cannot know what is “really” real because reality varies with individual perspective.

Questions 27—28 refer to the following passage.

(1) Charles Darwin was both a naturalist and a scientist. (2) Darwin’s On the Origin of Species (1859) was based on twenty-five years of research in testing and checking his theory of evolution. (3) “Darwinism” had a profound effect on the natural sciences, the social sciences, and the humanities. (4) Churchmen who feared for the survival of religious institutions rushed to attack him. (5) However, Darwin never attempted to apply his laws of evolution to human society. (6) It was the social Darwinists who expanded the theory of evolution to include society as a whole. (7) The social Darwinists viewed society as a “struggle for existence” with only the “fittest” members of society able to survive. (8) They espoused basically a racist and elitist doctrine. (9) Some people believed that certain people were naturally superior to others; it was in the “nature of things” for big business to take over “less fit,” smaller companies.

27. Sentence 9 of the passage is the author’s attempt to

A. discredit Charles Darwin’s theory.

B. voice his or her own point of view.

C. summarize one point of view.

D. give social Darwinism a fair shake.

E. explain the modern prominence of big business.

28. Which of the following is the author’s primary reason for writing the passage?

A. To warn of the dangers of having one’s ideas abused

B. To show that Darwin was unconcerned with human society

C. To defend Darwin against modern charges of racism and elitism

D. To explain how Darwin’s theory was applied to society

E. To give an example of Darwinian evolution

Questions 29—30 refer to the following index.

Vocabulary, vernacular, 347, 349

African, 215

American, 124, 188, 189, 200, 220

Northeastern, 256—258

Southern, 179, 181, 190—191

Western, 263—264

Australian, 299

Aboriginal, 288, 290—291

Convict “flash” language, 301

Canadian, 233, 241

English, 13, 17—20, 88—89, 115—119

Cockney, 81—82

Queen’s English, 94—95, 111

French, 25, 79

Northern, 83, 85

Southern, 80—81

Greek, 65, 68

29. On which pages should one look for information about the dialect spoken by California gold miners?

A. 124, 220

B. 256—258

C. 263—264

D. 190—191

E. 218—220

30. Which of the following best describes the organizational pattern used in the section of the book dealing with aboriginal natives?

A. by region of the country of origin

B. by spoken language of the country of origin

C. by culture of the country of origin

D. by written language of the country of origin

E. by ethnicity of the country of origin

Questions 31—32 refer to the following passage.

A lesson plan is basically a tool for effective teaching. Its primary importance is to present objectives and content in a logical and systematic manner; as such, it is an integral part of the instructional process.

31. Which of the following is an unstated assumption made by the author of the passage?

A. All features of the instructional process should have the same logical, systematic qualities as the lesson plan.

B. Students learn best when material is presented in an organized or planned manner.

C. A teacher who is not a logical, systematic thinker has no place in the instructional process.

D. The lesson plan is by far the most important tool for effective teaching.

E. Teachers should not deviate from the lesson plan in any case.

32. Which of the following is the best meaning of the word integral as it is used in the passage?

A. Original

B. Whole

C. Essential

D. Not segregated

E. Modern

Questions 33—36 refer to the following passage.

(1) In recent decades, tomato production in the United States has continued to exhibit a steady declining trend, while imports have more than doubled. (2) Much of the foreign crop arrives from Mexico, when the colder winters north of the Rio Grande make tomato growing difficult. (3) ________ the seasonal imports are not the only problem for American growers. (4) The second-leading exporter is the Netherlands, with a climate as cold as Pennsylvania’s. (5) The Dutch grow their tomatoes in greenhouses and ship gourmet varieties to markets throughout the United States.

(6) In the past, the chief worry of tomato growers was finding a fruit that could stand up to shipping and still look good. (7) The least of their concerns was taste. (8) Until recently, American seed developers concentrated on disease resistance, crop yield, and shelf life. (9) ________, with the competition from abroad, growers and planters are looking for flavor and color. (10) Ten years ago, most American growers offered only three kinds of tomatoes; now markets often stock eight to ten varieties, and specialty stores handle as many as twenty. (11) The better-looking and better-tasting tomatoes may turn out to be the answer to the competition from Mexico and Europe.

33. Which words, if inserted in order in the blank spaces in the first and second paragraphs, would help the reader understand the sequence of the author’s ideas?

A. Yet; Nevertheless

B. However; Still

C. And; And

D. Now; But

E. But; Now

34. Which of the following is the best definition of the term shelf life, as it appears in Sentence 8 of the passage?

A. Appearance when displayed in a market

B. Ability to last

C. Freshness in color

D. Texture

E. Freedom from bacteria

35. Which of the following numbered sentences is least relevant to the main idea of the second paragraph and could be easily omitted?

A. Sentence 6

B. Sentence 7

C. Sentence 8

D. Sentence 9

E. Sentence 10

36. From the passage, which of the following can you infer needs most to be improved by American tomato growers?

A. Freshness

B. Disease resistance

C. Price

D. Taste

E. Distribution

Questions 37—38 refer to the following passage.

Amphibians are becoming extinct faster than any other group of organisms. Because they are dependent on both land and water, if either habitat suffers, they also suffer. Their thin skins make it easy for them to take in air and water but also make them vulnerable to pollutants. The most immediate threat to amphibians is a parasitic fungus called amphibian chytrid, which was probably accidentally spread by African clawed frogs that were shipped worldwide for lab studies and pregnancy tests before the 1950s. But an even greater threat is loss of habitat. Critical breeding ponds have been lost to construction and development. Zoos are the best bet for saving amphibians and later returning them into the wild, but currently the number of zoos around the world can support at best about fifty species. Although there are cases in which species raised in captivity have been reintroduced to the wild, the project would be monumental for all amphibians.

37. According to the passage, amphibians are most at risk of extinction because of

A. their thin skins.

B. their dependency on air and water.

C. their use as experimental animals.

D. a parasitic fungus.

E. a continuing loss of habitat.

38. The author of the passage makes all of the following assumptions except

A. there is value in protecting all species of amphibians.

B. the loss of breeding grounds for amphibians will continue.

C. releasing amphibians raised in captivity into the wild would be impossible.

D. the availability of more zoos would increase the number of species that could be saved.

E. scientists have not yet eradicated amphibian chytrid in the wild.

Question 39 refers to the following statement.

Rewards tend to be more effective than punishment in controlling student behavior. Negative reinforcement is often accompanied by adverse emotional side effects that may inhibit learning.

39. Information presented in the passage best supports which of the following conclusions?

A. A student who is punished frequently may have difficulty learning.

B. In society at large, rewards are not given nearly as often as they should be.

C. Negative reinforcement is much more useful out of school than it is in school.

D. The most effective punishment is that which is followed by a reward.

E. Learning disabilities often lead to emotional problems.

Question 40 refers to the following statement.

Teacher salaries account for approximately 70 percent of a school budget. Any major proposal designed to reduce educational expenditures will ultimately necessitate a cut in instructional staff.

40. Agoura High School is staffed by 50 teachers, and its administration has just ordered a reduction in educational expenditures. According to the preceding passage, which of the following will be one result of the reduction?

A. A reduction in both administrative and teaching salaries

B. A teaching staff dependent on fewer educational materials

C. A teaching staff of fewer than 50 teachers

D. A teaching staff of only 15 teachers

E. A substantial change in the quality of education

Questions 41—44 refer to the following passage.

(1) Like many birds, the familiar orange and black monarch butterfly is migratory. (2) Each year, more than one hundred million of the insects fly from their summer homes in Washington, Oregon, and northern California to areas in southern California and northern Mexico. (3) Covering as much as sixty miles a day, the butterflies are propelled more by the seasonal winds than by the power of their wings.

(4) How does this tiny creature find its way to a wintering place several thousand miles away? (5) The best explanation is from well-recognized insect ecologists who have established that the monarchs use the position of the sun to determine their flight direction on long-distance journeys. (6) But this cannot be the whole story. (7) Others theorize that the butterfly can sense the force lines of the earth’s magnetic field to use as a navigational aid. (8) Another theory is that the butterflies find directional clues in the changing length of the days. (9) But we still do not know how so small an insect can find its way year after year over so long a distance. (10) Parents should make a greater effort to increase their children’s interest in butterflies.

41. Which of the following is the best definition of the word migratory in Sentence 1?

A. Short-lived

B. Moving periodically

C. Susceptible to infection

D. Able to fly

E. Accustomed to many habitats

42. Which of the following best explains how butterflies find their flight direction when they migrate?

A. Butterflies use the prevailing winds.

B. Butterflies rely on one generation’s teaching the next.

C. Butterflies use the position of the sun.

D. Butterflies rely on the force lines of the earth’s magnetic field.

E. Butterflies use the changing length of days and nights.

43. Of the following general statements, which one is best supported by the contents of this passage?

A. Questions remain about animal behavior that scientists are unable to answer.

B. Butterflies and other insects would be unable to navigate on cloudy days.

C. Smaller animals like insects depend more on the wind than on their own wings for travel over long distances.

D. Scientists will never be able to explain how butterflies can find their way over long distances.

E. Scientists know more about the larger land and sea animals than they do about insects like the butterfly.

44. Which of the following numbered sentences in paragraph two best expresses the writer’s opinion rather than a fact?

A. Sentence 6

B. Sentence 7

C. Sentence 8

D. Sentence 9

E. Sentence 10

Questions 45—46 refer to the following passage.

Respiration and breathing are sometimes used synonymously, but it is necessary to understand the distinction between them. All living cells respire, whereas breathing is a function of many multicellular animals. Respiration is a chemical process within the cells, whereas breathing is a renewal of air or water on a surface through which an exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide can take place. Respiration is a process of releasing energy from food, whereas breathing is a method of providing oxygen for absorption and of removing carbon dioxide after respiration is complete.

45. In the context of the passage, respiration is a process within cells that

A. provides oxygen.

B. removes carbon dioxide.

C. absorbs oxygen.

D. provides carbon dioxide.

E. releases energy.

46. According to the passage, it can be inferred that

A. respiration is more important than breathing.

B. not all multicellular animals breathe.

C. respiration takes place on the surface, whereas breathing is cellular.

D. without breathing, respiration could not take place.

E. breathing and respiration are different types of chemical reactions in the cells.

Question 47 refers to the following passage.

Graduate students who expect to specialize in The Teaching of Writing must take English 600, either English 500 (Advanced Composition) or English 504 (Writing of Criticism), at least three literature courses concentrating on the same single century only, English 740 (Teaching of Writing), English 741 (Classical Rhetoric), and English 742 (Modern Rhetorical Theory).

47. According to the passage, which of the following schedules does not belong to a specialist in The Teaching of Writing?

A. English 740—742, Advanced Composition, twentieth-century drama, twentieth-century poetry, twentieth-century novels, English 600

B. English 740—742, eighteenth-century poetry, eighteenth-century prose fiction, eighteenth-century drama, English 504, English 600

C. English 600, Victorian poetry, Victorian prose fiction, Victorian novels, English 500, English 740, 741, and 742

D. English 500, seventeenth-century poetry, seventeenth-century drama, Victorian novels of the 1800s, English 740, 741, and 742

E. English 740, Classical Rhetoric, Modern Rhetorical Theory, English 500, English 600, Victorian poetry, Victorian prose fiction, Victorian novels

Questions 48—50 refer to the following chart.

Students Involved in Extracurricular Activities at Mercy High School

48. Which of the following conclusions about the percentage of students involved in extracurricular activities cannot logically be derived?

A. A greater percentage of senior girls are involved in sports than are sophomore girls.

B. A smaller percentage of junior girls are involved in newspaper/yearbook than are senior girls.

C. A greater percentage of sophomore girls are involved in music/drama than are senior girls.

D. A greater percentage of junior girls are involved in miscellaneous extracurricular activities than are senior girls.

E. A greater percentage of senior boys are involved in sports than are sophomore boys.

49. Which of the following identifies the third-highest percentage of participation in any group?

A. Sophomore boys involved in music/drama

B. Sophomore boys involved in miscellaneous

C. Junior boys involved in music/drama

D. Senior girls involved in newspaper/yearbook

E. Senior boys involved in music/drama

50. The data presented in the chart above supports the development of which of the following?

A. An initiative to encourage more girls to play sports

B. Extra credit for male participation in music and drama

C. A program that encourages students not to drop sports as they age

D. Incentivizing involvement of upperclassman boys with newspaper/yearbook

E. More broadly appealing programs in the fields of music and drama

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.