CliffsNotes CBEST - BTPS TESTING Ph.D., Jerry Bobrow Ph.D. & 8 more 2021

Section I: Reading
Practice Test 3

50 Questions

80 Minutes

Directions: A question or number of questions follows each of the passages in this section. Using only the stated or implied information given in the statement or passage, answer each question by choosing the best answer from among the five choices given. Mark your answers on a sheet of paper.

Questions 1—2 refer to the following index.

if clauses, 152

ignorance, verbs expressing, 139

imperative, 91—93; formation in irregular verbs, 154; negative, 94; third person of, 150

impersonal construction, 128

impersonal verbs, 141; auxiliary used with, 135

imprecations, 150

in, 39, 116; after a superlative, 126; auxiliary used with, 135

indefinite antecedent of a relative pronoun, 147

indefinite article: forms, 19; before possessives, 53; omitted, 151

indefinite pronoun, 147

independent clauses, subjunctive in, 150

indicative. See tenses

infinitive, 22; contracted, 154; dependent, 159—160; in noun clauses, 140; used as a noun, 148; used as a stem, 48; used as an imperative, 94; used as the object of a preposition, 148; without preposition, 162

irregular verbs, 169; formation, 154; regular forms of, 153—154

1. All the following are possible uses of the infinitive, except

A. as the object of the preposition.

B. as a noun.

C. in a noun clause.

D. as a subjunctive.

E. as a stem.

2. On what page would you look for information about the use of the preposition in in a phrase like the best in the world or the worst in the state?

A. 39

B. 116

C. 126

D. 135

E. 150

Question 3 refers to the following passage.

Surpluses in hydroelectric power are not always advantageous. For example, during years with heavy precipitation in the winter and spring seasons, the Pacific Northwest often experiences a power surplus from its hydroelectric dams. This surplus has allowed the region to lessen its dependency on more dangerous, environmentally damaging power sources such as coal and nuclear plants. However, the surplus also comes with potentially negative consequences: The leading power provider in the region could be forced to shut down many of its wind farms—a major blow to the burgeoning wind power industry—and inconsistent river surges could result in unstable employment conditions at coal and nuclear power plants in the region.

3. Which of the following best addresses the author’s concerns about hydroelectric power surpluses?

A. Excess power can be sold to other energy providers in regions of need.

B. Employees of coal and nuclear power plants in the region are hard, reliable workers.

C. Viable alternatives to hydroelectric power as safe, clean power sources exist.

D. During years without heavy rain, hydroelectric dams do not produce significant energy.

E. Riverside communities in the Pacific Northwest are well equipped to handle flooding.

Question 4 refers to the following passage.

Recent studies show that aptitude test scores are declining because of lack of family stability and students’ preoccupation with out-of-school activities. Therefore, not only the student’s mindset but also his or her home environment must be changed to stop this downward trend.

4. Which of the following is one assumption of the preceding argument?

A. Recent studies have refuted previous studies.

B. Heredity is more important than environment.

C. Aptitude test scores should stop declining soon.

D. The accuracy of the recent studies cited is not an issue.

E. More out-of-school activities are available than ever before.

Questions 5—6 refer to the following passage.

(1) Poet Emily Dickinson was an eccentric, almost reclusive, woman who never married. (2) In the town of Amherst, Massachusetts, where she lived, people knew she could write verse, but of what real use was that, except for writing a condolence note or a compliment to accompany a gift? (3) During her lifetime, her writing was treated as not very significant. (4) Of course, people knew little about her poetic talent, since she only chose to publish a few of her many poems while she was alive. (5) Now, in our own time, she is one of America’s most celebrated poets. (6) In some ways, Emily Dickinson’s legacy is a variation of the Cinderella story. (7) She was transformed from a seemingly drab spinster into a fascinating woman—not by a fairy godmother, but by the exquisite poetry she wrote.

5. Which of the following clarifies the writer’s primary purpose regarding Emily Dickinson?

A. To describe the contrast between her perceived life and her talent

B. To explain her inability to achieve recognition as a talented writer during her life

C. To refute the lack of appreciation in her local community for her work

D. To explore her modern-day reputation as a classic American poet

E. To analyze the underlying psychological motivations for her poetry

6. Which of the following best describes the writer’s reference to Cinderella’s transformation in Sentences 6—7?

A. It draws a parallel to another rags-to-riches literary icon.

B. It romanticizes an otherwise sad story about an unappreciated author.

C. It illustrates how the success of Dickinson’s poetry changed her formerly mundane life.

D. It shows a similar example of a woman succeeding outside of her place in the social hierarchy.

E. It creates an analogy to Dickinson’s rise to fame after her death.

Questions 7—10 refer to the following passage.

(1) Herbs and other natural medicines are no longer found only in health-food stores. (2) They are now sold in supermarkets, discount stores, by mail, and over the Internet. (3) The Internet is rapidly becoming America’s favorite place to buy. (4) One in three Americans uses medicinal herbs, and sales exceed ten billion dollars each year. (5) Several reasons are behind this phenomenon. (6) One is that the Food and Drug Administration no longer has regulatory power over dietary supplements, so the marketing of these products has increased. (7) ________.

(8) The rise in the consumption of herbal remedies has raised some questions in the medical community. (9) One is the unsupported claims for herbal remedies by manufacturers. (10) Another is that quality and purity can vary greatly among herbal preparations. (11) Some physicians remain skeptical of their effectiveness and argue that the reported benefits are based more on imagined effects than on science. (12) ________, studies in Europe have shown that the herb known as St. John’s wort worked as a remedy for depressed moods; ________ an extract of the ginkgo tree has been shown to modestly improve other ailments such as forgetfulness.

7. Which of the following numbered sentences is the least relevant to the ideas of the first paragraph?

A. Sentence 2

B. Sentence 3

C. Sentence 4

D. Sentence 5

E. Sentence 6

8. Which sentence, if inserted into the blank line in the first paragraph (Sentence 7), would be most consistent with the writer’s purpose in this passage?

A. More and more people have been turned on to herbs and herbal compounds.

B. You could also say that more doctors have told their patients to take herbs.

C. A second is that more doctors are recommending herbal remedies to their patients.

D. The fact that herbs are being recommended by doctors and medical practitioners in larger and greater numbers is also a factor.

E. And is expected to increase even more.

9. Which words or phrases, if inserted in order into the blanks in Sentence 12 of the second paragraph, would help the reader understand the sequence of the writer’s ideas?

A. Also; on the other hand

B. Thus; conversely

C. In addition; nevertheless

D. However; furthermore

E. On the other hand; however

10. Which of the following best reflects the content of the two paragraphs of the passage?

A. Paragraph one: The increased consumption of herbal remedies

Paragraph two: The concerns of doctors and potential benefits of herbs

B. Paragraph one: The growth of herbal medicines in the American marketplace

Paragraph two: How to guard against ineffective herbal medicines

C. Paragraph one: The use of herbal remedies

Paragraph two: Comparing herbal and traditional medicines

D. Paragraph one: The popularity of herbal medicines

Paragraph two: The dangers of herbal medicines

E. Paragraph one: Herbal remedies and the Food and Drug Administration

Paragraph two: Successful testing of herbal remedies

Questions 11—12 refer to the following passage.

(1) Sales of hybrid electric bicycles have been increasing rapidly in European markets in recent years, with some countries reporting that as many as 50 percent of new bicycle purchases are electric. (2) Particularly in compact urban areas, workers and students find that electric bicycles provide a practical compromise between the frustration of fighting road and rail traffic and the discomfort of arriving at work or class dripping in sweat from a strenuous bike ride. (3) The American market has been slower to catch on, but current indicators show strong potential for sales growth. (4) Proponents of electric bicycles point to anticipated rises in both fuel prices and population densities as evidence that sales should continue to increase over the coming decade.

11. Which of the following sentences could most logically be placed after Sentence 4 to weaken the point in Sentence 4?

A. However, many electric bicycles are sold in cool climates.

B. However, European fads often catch on in the United States.

C. However, only a small portion of bicycles sold in some European markets are electric.

D. However, studies have shown that most electric bicycles are not very fuel-efficient.

E. However, Americans are notoriously reluctant to use public transit.

12. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to

A. introduce the reader to the concept of electric bicycles.

B. identify several potential roadblocks to the future growth of electric bicycles.

C. describe the current and future market for electric bicycles.

D. give a history of the electric bicycle’s rise to prominence.

E. convince the reader to consider the purchase of an electric bicycle.

Questions 13—14 refer to the following passage.

Sometimes the U.S. government goes out of its way to prove it can be an absolute nuisance. Take the case of Southern Clay, Inc., which has a factory in Paris, Tennessee, producing a clay product for cat boxes best known as “cat litter.”

It’s a simple enough process, but the federal Mine Safety and Health Administration insists that since clay comes from the ground—an excavation half a mile from the cat litter plant—the company actually is engaged in mining and milling. Therefore, says MSHA, Southern Clay is subject to all the rules that govern, say, coal miners working in shafts several hundred feet down.

The company has been told to devise an escape system and fire-fighting procedure in case there is a fire in its “mine.” Southern Clay estimates it will lose six thousand hours in production time giving its 250 factory workers special training in how to escape from a mine disaster.

13. The author’s purpose in writing this article is to

A. explain how cat litter is produced.

B. describe the Mine Safety and Health Administration.

C. show how tidy cats are.

D. show that the government can sometimes be a nuisance.

E. describe how to prevent fires in mines.

14. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen MSHA’s position?

A. The clay excavation site is actually closer to the company than half a mile.

B. The clay excavation site has shafts as deep as coal mines, hundreds of feet down.

C. Southern Clay, Inc. has begun using a different material than clay in their cat litter.

D. Clay can also be found in the coal mine shafts.

E. Southern Clay, Inc. estimates losing six thousand hours of production time, which equates to 24 hours of training per employee.

Questions 15—17 refer to the following passage.

(1) Plant identification requires little paraphernalia. (2) Only two items are essential: a field guide or manual and a hand lens. (3) Some progress can be made without the lens, but a good magnifying glass is especially helpful in ascertaining twig characteristics. (4) Lenses for general use should magnify six to ten times. (5) Whenever possible, identifications should be made in the field, where additional specimens and supplementary data are available. (6) When there is a need for collecting specimens, however, one can secure a vasculum (a metal container to keep specimens fresh) and a plant press. (7) One can substitute any fairly airtight bag or box for the vasculum and make a press of scrap wood and blotters held together by straps. (8) A roll of newspaper or even a large magazine often does as well as a carrier of specimens that are merely being carried for early identification.

15. Which of the following is the best definition of paraphernalia as it is used Sentence 1?

A. Technical knowledge

B. Experience

C. Manual skill

D. Equipment

E. Stamina

16. According to the passage, why is it preferable to make identifications in the field?

A. To avoid having to transport specimens

B. To have more specimens at hand

C. To prevent the deterioration of specimens

D. To take advantage of natural light

E. To eliminate carrying heavy equipment

17. A resealable plastic bag is a suitable replacement for a vasculum (Sentence 6) because it is

A. lightweight.

B. easy to see through.

C. inexpensive.

D. disposable.

E. airtight.

Question 18 refers to the following passage.

Jesuit Antonio Vieira—missionary, diplomat, and voluminous writer—repeated the triumphs he had gained in Bahia, Brazil, and Lisbon in Rome, Italy, which proclaimed him the prince of Catholic orators. His two hundred sermons are a mine of learning and experience, and they stand out from all others by their imaginative power, originality of view, variety of treatment, and audacity of expression.

18. The author’s attitude toward Vieira may be described as

A. spiritual.

B. idolatrous.

C. indifferent.

D. admiring.

E. critical.

Questions 19—20 refer to the following passage.

School lunches have been in the news recently, likely due to the growing nationwide interest in healthy food and good nutrition. A study by the School Nutrition Dietary Assessment Study has shown that 70 percent of schools serve lunches that meet guidelines for vitamins, minerals, and protein, but legislation guidelines for healthier lunches have become stricter. In an effort to increase health and nutrition, the USDA has issued standards for healthy school lunches. Lunches for school children must meet a minimum calorie limit set by the government according to the National School Lunch Program, but it is up to the individual schools to decide how each should meet that calorie limit. For example, a cook can throw in an extra couple of pieces of bread in order for the lunch to reach the designated calorie limit. Some schools continue to serve meals that are high in salt and sugar even though the USDA standards require schools to offer fruits and vegetables every day. One expert, Dr. Orton of the Rawlings Institute, says that the calorie standard is out of date. According to Dr. Orton, it is more important to make sure kids eat healthy food than it is for them to have a certain number of calories in their lunches.

19. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken Dr. Orton’s argument?

A. An increasing number of schools have healthy vending machine options.

B. A recent study showed that undereating was a leading cause of childhood nutritional problems.

C. Healthy school lunch initiatives have been unpopular with students.

D. Children who receive a healthy dose of vegetables are much less likely to become obese.

E. The amount of calories needed varies widely, depending on the child.

20. The writer of the passage relies mainly on all of the following persuasive techniques except

A. expressing personal opinion.

B. appealing to logic.

C. using specific arguments.

D. citing authorities in the field.

E. using specific examples.

Question 21 refers to the following passage.

The 65-mile-per-hour speed limit has not only lowered the number of accidents, but it has also saved many lives. Yet, auto insurance rates have not reflected this decrease. Therefore, insurance companies are making profits rather than lowering premiums.

21. This argument implies that

A. the 65-mile-per-hour limit is unfair.

B. auto manufacturers agree with insurance companies’ policies.

C. insurance companies are taking advantage of drivers.

D. saving lives is more important than lowering premiums.

E. driving skills have improved greatly since the 65-mile-per-hour limit has been in effect.

Questions 22—23 refer to the following statement.

German goldsmith Johannes Gutenberg is credited with inventing the first printing press in 1451. This made it possible to use interchangeable metal type in different combinations to print books. The printing press was one of the most revolutionary inventions known in human history. It had a profound and immediate impact on the political, economic, and social structure of Europe and ushered in an information revolution that began the “period of modernity.” Literacy among laypeople accelerated, scientific critical scholarship became more reliable, and the diffusion of knowledge produced economic growth.

22. The passage is primarily concerned with

A. emphasizing why the printing press was the crowning achievement of German inventor Johannes Gutenberg.

B. providing background for the intellectual renaissance in European society in the fifteenth century.

C. placing the invention of the printing press within its proper context in human history.

D. explaining the mechanisms by which the first printing press operated.

E. describing the effect of the printing press on the class structure of Europe.

23. According to the passage, the invention of the printing press produced improvements in all of the following except the

A. ability of lower-class workers to read.

B. political oppression in Europe.

C. widespread availability of information and wisdom.

D. consistency and trustworthiness of claimed scientific advances.

E. production and output of European economies.

Questions 24—25 refer to the following chart.

Super Sale on Mattresses

24. As shown in the chart, the largest bonus discount for Extra Firm mattresses is

A. $55.00

B. $75.00

C. $90.00

D. $674.95

E. $809.95

25. According to the chart, for which two items was the sale price the same?

A. Regal Full and Royal Satin Full

B. Extra Firm Twin and Royal Satin Twin

C. Regal King and Royal Satin Queen

D. Extra Firm King and Regal King

E. Extra Firm Queen and Regal Queen

Question 26 refers to the following passage.

Many species of male birds perform elaborate dances to attract a mate. Female birds that witness these performances tend to be drawn to these males because the dance demonstrates strength, agility, and other desirable genetic attributes. In one species of bird, the presence of a younger male assistant in the dance significantly raises the likelihood that the lead male’s courtship will be successful. However, the assistant is not mature enough to mate and is usually not related to the lead male, so his participation in the performance seems to lack any incentive.

26. Which of the following statements provides the most logical explanation for the young male assistant’s apparent lack of incentive?

A. Once he matures, a young male assistant is more likely to find an assistant of his own than is a young male who never assisted.

B. In some cases, a female onlooker challenges the female who is being courted for the right to mate with the lead male.

C. A young male who assists is more likely to die of hunger before maturity than one who does not assist.

D. Young males who later participate as assistants can be shown, early on, to be stronger and more agile than males who do not.

E. Offspring of birds who mate as a result of a mating dance are more likely to survive to maturity than offspring of birds who do not.

Questions 27—29 refer to the following passage.

(1) A painter with seven fingers sits at his easel, the Eiffel Tower shining outside the window, a Jewish village hovering in a cloud above his head. (2) This is how Marc Chagall painted himself in 1912. (3) Over a century later, the painting lives, but Chagall died at 97.

(4) A Jew from a Russian shtetl who revolutionized modern art by imposing his naive vision of beauty on a world that was consumed in the flames of the Holocaust, Chagall rescued images of a world that have largely vanished. (5) Chagall joined other artists in trying to paint a new vision. (6) There is life, not death, in his palate of bright colors, and love, not bitterness, in the paintings of cartwheeling lovers and rooftop fiddlers. (7) And the enduring themes of Judaism glow in Chagall’s stained-glass windows in the Hadassah Medical Center in Jerusalem.

(8) Chagall captures realism through the language of dream. (9) A bearded peddler floats above the village of Vitebsk. (10) A green violinist wearing a long purple coat plays an orange fiddle. (11) Lovers astride a white horse embrace, while the horse holds a bouquet of flowers and a violin under its head. (12) What do these paintings mean? (13) That is like asking a bearded Hasid to explain the mysteries of the Kabala or asking history to explain why millions of simple Jews, who dreamed of births and weddings and bar mitzvahs, awoke to a nightmare of death in the concentration camps. (14) Chagall left the interpretation to the art historians and critics. (15) He painted the images that came to him, but a closer look reveals a technical mastery and control of symbols that belies the primitive. (16) It is through Chagall’s paintings that dreams of the Jews survive the Holocaust—alive as the melody of a green violinist.

27. According to the passage, Chagall’s paintings were

A. not meant to be interpreted.

B. unfathomable, even by the painter.

C. primitive in style and technical mastery.

D. optimistic and uplifting.

E. disillusioned and embittered.

28. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

A. Chagall’s largest collection of paintings is now held in a Russian museum.

B. Chagall’s paintings are now more popular and valuable than ever before.

C. Chagall’s brilliant and enduring paintings will live long after his death.

D. Artists, like Chagall, should paint only the uplifting experiences of life.

E. Chagall’s dreamlike paintings have never received a popular acceptance.

29. Which of the following inferences may possibly be drawn from the description of Chagall’s self-portrait?

A. Chagall had only one hand.

B. Chagall was a bearded peddler.

C. Chagall also played the violin.

D. Chagall once lived in France.

E. Chagall could paint only Jewish themes.

Question 30 refers to the following graph.

30. According to the graph, which of the following cities had the highest night-game attendance compared to its day-game attendance?

A. Los Angeles

B. New York

C. Cleveland

D. Chicago

E. Boston

Questions 31—32 refer to the following passage.

Mexico gained its independence from Spain in 1822 but put no greater imperative on the development and political control of California than had Spain. Within the region then known as Alta California, a system of feudal estates, which were enlarged by the sale of Spanish mission lands, made local landowners the real power brokers in California. Seeing a future of independence unlikely—with the Russians, British, French, and Americans all poised to seize their vulnerable territory—some “Californios” looked to Europeans to free them from Mexico’s rule. Others rejected the Old World authority of monarchs and instead favored annexation by the U.S.

31. Which of the following is suggested by the supporting details of the passage?

A. The Spanish did not put a significant focus on California’s development.

B. The Alta California region was partially located in modern-day Mexico.

C. The majority of Californians desired to join the U.S. democratic system.

D. The elected officials held a disproportionate amount of power in Alta California.

E. A portion of Californians wanted the territory to pursue its independence.

32. In context of the passage, the author’s primary goal is to

A. explain how Californians came to favor annexation by the United States.

B. detail the potential moves California could have made to escape Mexican reign.

C. describe the situation faced by Californians under Mexican reign.

D. provide a comprehensive picture of the socioeconomic dynamics of early nineteenth-century California.

E. discuss the process by which California gained independence from Spain.

Questions 33—34 refer to the following passage.

(1) Our atmosphere is composed of 78 percent nitrogen and 21 percent oxygen. (2) However, this atmospheric nitrogen cannot be used by organisms without some assistance. (3) The nitrogen cycle is unique because it has stages during which bacteria help convert the nitrogen into useable forms. (4) Nitrogen is essential for life because it helps to develop proteins, DNA, and RNA, and it also provides for plant growth.

33. Information presented in the passage best supports which of the following conclusions?

A. Nitrogen is more important to life than oxygen.

B. The presence of bacteria is a necessary element in the production of life.

C. Fully grown plants consist of a significant portion of nitrogen.

D. Proteins, DNA, and RNA are the only three building blocks for life.

E. Atmospheric nitrogen is more difficult for organisms to use than is non-atmospheric nitrogen.

34. Which of the following is the best meaning of the word assistance as it is used in Sentence 2?

A. The role nitrogen plays in the facilitation of life

B. The development of proteins, DNA, and RNA in living organisms

C. The necessary interaction between nitrogen and oxygen

D. The process by which nitrogen becomes useable

E. The help needed to begin the nitrogen cycle

Questions 35—37 refer to the following passage.

(1) Our planet Earth has a magnetic tail and, although the appendage is invisible, it must be somewhat similar to those of comets and other heavenly bodies. (2) Earth’s tail is an egg-shaped zone of electrically charged particles positioned about 400,000 miles from us—always faced away from the sun.

(3) Physicist Lou Frank of the University of Iowa says researchers recently calculated the tail’s existence and position by examining Explorer I satellite photos of the northern and southern lights. (4) These colorful displays of green and red—the aurora borealis and the aurora australis—glow and flicker in the night sky of the northern and southern hemispheres.

(5) The auroras occur because the solar wind racing from the sun pushes against Earth’s magnetic field and creates an electric power supply in our planet’s newly discovered tail. (6) The displays are seen frequently at times of sunspot activity, especially in the months of March and April, and again in September and October. (7) Their colors are mostly green, sometimes red. (8) They have been observed in the continental United States and in Mexico.

35. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the aurora borealis and aurora australis?

A. They are unnatural phenomena caused by solar wind.

B. They are caused by sunspot activity in March, April, September, and October.

C. They are electrical phenomena caused by solar wind and magnetism.

D. They are egg-shaped and occur about 400,000 miles away.

E. They were first photographed by Lou Frank of the University of Iowa.

36. Which sentence is least relevant to the main idea of the passage?

A. Sentence 4

B. Sentence 5

C. Sentence 6

D. Sentence 7

E. Sentence 8

37. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. The aurora borealis and aurora australis probably occur at the equator.

B. Earth’s magnetic field will someday probably transform this planet into a comet.

C. Astronomers will probably now be observing Earth’s tail through high-powered telescopes.

D. The tails of comets are probably composed of electrically charged particles.

E. The auroras race from the sun and push against Earth’s magnetic field.

Questions 38—40 refer to the following passage.

If we must have an evaluation of students’ performance, at least do it without grades. The grading system is not a good indicator of intellectual ability and should be eliminated. _________ steer students away from passive learning toward active learning. In this way, students would be able to focus attention on areas of greater significance. This is more important than performance and a letter grade on a transcript. The abolition of grades will encourage us to concentrate less on evaluation and more on instruction.

38. According to the passage, the author would most likely agree with which of the following?

A. Wherever grades exist, instruction is poor.

B. There are better indicators of intellectual ability than grades.

C. Graded students are not good students.

D. Intellectual ability can be measured only in a scholastic setting.

E. Grades are the only remaining hindrance to effective education.

39. Which of the following, if inserted into the blank line, would be most consistent with the writer’s purpose and intended audience?

A. The prospect of a high grade point average will

B. A lack of grades might motivate students’ interest in subject matter and

C. The grading criteria established by instructors should

D. A prepared and engaging instructor will

E. The practicality of academic disciplines will

40. Which of the following best describes the intended audience for the passage?

A. Politicians

B. Parents

C. Students

D. Teachers

E. Civic leaders

Question 41 refers to the following passage.

Mexican painter Diego Rivera epitomized the tendency toward romanticizing nationalist history. To revitalize Mexico’s poor Indian class, he created a mural to portray not only its idealized ancient tradition, but also its power to reconstruct the present and control the future.

This nationalism, known to Mexico’s indigenous people, was present in the paintings of both Siqueiros and Orozco, but served a different purpose. Siqueiros focused on the natives’ brave struggle against seemingly overwhelming forces. On the surface, Orozco disdained the use of nationalism, but nevertheless, his treatment of the positive aspects of the human condition often presented pre-Columbian figures in grand, heroic terms.

41. According to the passage, Diego Rivera’s primary political intention in his mural of Mexican history was to

A. denounce overly romanticized nationalism.

B. depict the heroic battles of the revolution.

C. energize the Indian population and direct it to the future.

D. create an artistic language for modern Mexico.

E. preserve pre-Columbian symbolism and mythology.

Questions 42—43 refer to the following passage.

California once prided itself on being the state with the finest roads in the nation. That is no longer true. Gas taxes took care of California’s highway needs for years, but they are no longer adequate. One reason the present tax no longer covers the bill is that modern cars are using less fuel. The main factor, though, is that the cost of building and maintaining highways has gone way up while the tax has not kept up with inflation.

Certainly, California streets, roads, and highways need help. Two-thirds of city streets and 77 percent of country roads are substandard. Ruts and potholes can be found almost everywhere, and the longer they go without repair, the more they will cost.

42. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

A. Deterioration of California’s roads has resulted from increased costs and decreased funds.

B. The quality of California roads is now second in the nation.

C. Fuel-efficient cars cause more wear and tear on the roads than did cars of the past.

D. Every road in the state is marred with potholes.

E. Over three-quarters of California’s roads are substandard.

43. Which of the following is not a problem stated by the passage?

A. Inadequate tax revenue

B. Ruts and potholes

C. Increased cost of building highways

D. Inflation

E. Demand for new highways

Questions 44—45 refer to the following passage.

The $100 million in state funds earmarked for advertising California’s attractiveness as a tourist destination is an investment well worth making. Perhaps because California has long taken for granted that everyone wants to come here, and maybe because for many years Hollywood was California’s most powerful publicist, until recently the state has never spent a dime promoting itself to potential visitors. And that may be at least partly responsible for the decline in tourism, including a 10-percent drop in spending. Since tourism is a $150-billion industry employing 1.5 million Californians, perhaps this new advertising has been too long in coming.

44. Which of the following is an assumption of the passage?

A. California will never spend funds to promote tourism.

B. A proposed advertising campaign will decrease the competition from other states.

C. California tax revenues are only a result of tourism.

D. Increased tourism will result in higher state and local tax revenues as well as added state income.

E. More Californians are visiting other states than ever before.

45. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

A. If the advertising campaign works, the $100-million price tag will be a bargain.

B. Advertising campaigns should be carefully and slowly monitored.

C. Few Californians oppose the proposed advertising campaign.

D. Hollywood should not continue to be a drawing card to attract tourists.

E. One hundred million dollars is not enough to employ 1.5 million Californians.

Questions 46—48 refer to the following passage.

(1) Although the 1906 games in Athens are written into the record books as Olympic Games, some purists argue that the 1906 Athens games shouldn’t really be considered Olympic Games. (2) An Olympiad occurs once every 4 years and the correct interval was not followed. (3) The correct interval would be the St. Louis games (1904), followed by the London games (1908). (4) The recognition of the 1906 games in Athens as Olympic Games is important for Americans, in particular, because the 1906 games were the first time the United States had a real Olympic team: 35 athletes, financed by nationwide donations. (5) An American Olympic Committee, headed by its honorary chairman, President Theodore Roosevelt, who had always enthusiastically supported all athletes, selected the participating athletes.

46. The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. explain why the 1906 games in Athens are not officially considered Olympic Games.

B. show the importance of Theodore Roosevelt to the development of an American team.

C. describe the selection process for Olympic athletes.

D. document the first time the United States had a real Olympic team.

E. criticize those who don’t accept the 1906 contest as true Olympic Games.

47. As used in Sentence 1, the word purists most nearly means

A. Olympic historians.

B. people of limited imagination.

C. people who adhere strictly to a definition.

D. people who are not corrupted by popular opinion.

E. uninformed amateurs.

48. According to the passage, which of the following conclusions can be drawn about the committee in charge of organizing the 1906 Olympics?

A. They did not believe that the passing of an Olympiad was necessary for a new Olympic Games.

B. They had a particular appreciation for Athens’ Olympic history.

C. They were chaired by President Theodore Roosevelt.

D. They funded the entire Olympics with donations.

E. They lacked respect for standard Olympic traditions and customs.

Questions 49—50 refer to the following passage.

(1) The hopeful and expectant mood of watchful waiting in which intellectuals observed the aftermath of the stock market Great Crash could not survive the evidence of growing depression. (2) Whereas previous economic slumps had affected the agricultural and industrial population, now in the 1930s all classes and all sectors of the economy were hurt in some way. (3) The middle class, traditionally the bulwark of American society, succumbed to the mounting unemployment and drastically reduced incomes of its white-collar workers and professional people. (4) As stock prices tumbled to ever lower levels, doctors, lawyers, teachers, clerks, skilled laborers, writers, and artists all felt the reality of the Depression and the pangs of poverty.

49. Which choice best describes the mood of many intellectuals in the United States in the immediate aftermath of the Great Crash?

A. Restrained

B. Angry

C. Hopeful

D. Cynical

E. Skeptical

50. As used in Sentence 3, the word bulwark most nearly means

A. wildcard.

B. embarrassment.

C. foundation.

D. peak.

E. apex.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.