CliffsNotes CBEST - BTPS TESTING Ph.D., Jerry Bobrow Ph.D. & 8 more 2021
Section I: Reading
Practice Test 4
50 Questions
80 Minutes
Directions: A question or number of questions follows each of the passages in this section. Using only the stated or implied information given in the statement or passage, answer each question by choosing the best answer from among the five choices given. Mark your answers on a sheet of paper.
Questions 1—2 refer to the following passage.
(1) The term meteorology has been around since the 17th century, but meteorology as we know it today didn’t actually exist until instruments that could accurately measure temperatures were developed. (2) This wasn’t an easy task; an accurate reading depended on creating a very even diameter in a glass tube. (3) Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit solved the problem and produced an accurate thermometer in 1717, but for some unknown reason, he calibrated it so that freezing was put at 32 degrees and the boiling point at 212 degrees. (4) This seemed odd to many people, among them astronomer Anders Celsius, who in 1748 came up with a competing scale that he felt made more sense: Zero would be the boiling point and 100 the freezing point. (5) However, that certainly wasn’t the end of the story. (6) Celsius’ scale was soon reversed, and zero became the freezing point and 100 the boiling point. (7) Both the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales are used today. (8) _____________________________ (9) Many people simply want to know how cold or warm the weather is going to be.
1. Which of the following is the author’s main point of the passage?
A. To describe the history and early origins of meteorology
B. To demonstrate how scientists and inventors do not always agree
C. To summarize the origins of the Fahrenheit and Celsius temperature scales
D. To explain the technical difficulties in producing an accurate thermometer
E. To compare and contrast the merits and drawbacks of the Fahrenheit and Celsius temperature scales
2. Which sentence, if inserted into the blank line of Sentence 8, would be most consistent with the writer’s main purpose?
A. The Celsius temperature scale is more logical than, and therefore superior to, the Fahrenheit scale.
B. It would be ideal if only one of the systems was used to prevent confusion.
C. Anders Celsius questioned the measurement methods of Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit.
D. The widespread use of two different temperature scales can lead to serious problems and should cease.
E. Fahrenheit’s thermometer, though accurate, was inefficient.
Questions 3—5 refer to the following outline.
1. Elements of Music
A. Pitch
1. High or low and may repeat
2. Creates melody
B. Rhythm
1. Measured by units of time
2. “Beats” can be organized in sets
C. Harmony
1. Two or more simultaneous tones
2. Three or more simultaneous tones make a chord
D. Form
1. “Design” or music created by interaction of elements
2. “Phrases” can be similar or different
3. Repetition of elements creates unity
4. Contrasting elements create variety
E. Texture
1. Total sound—thick, thin, opaque, and transparent
2. Motifs’ textures—legato (smooth sounding) and staccato (detached)
F. Tempo
1. Speed
2. Terms—examples, lento (slow) and presto (quick)
G. Dynamics
1. Loudness and softness of music
2. Terms—examples, piano (soft) and forte (loud)
H. Timbre
1. Unique tonal quality
2. Each instrument family has characteristic sound
I. Notation
1. Written form
2. Composed of symbols for notes, rests, pitch, and so on
3. Which of the following headings denotes where the term fortissimo (very loud) should be placed in the outline?
A. B.2
B. C.2
C. D.1
D. F.1
E. G.2
4. From the information given in the outline, repetition of elements could create which of the following?
A. Rests
B. Unity
C. Chords
D. Variety
E. Notes
5. The outline indicates that the unique tonal sound created by the woodwind family would be called which of the following?
A. Timbre
B. Pitch
C. Harmony
D. Tempo
E. Rhythm
Question 6 refers to the following passage.
The Celtic story of Queen Maeve tells of a powerful goddess warrior. It is possible that the headstrong goddess, a surprising figure in a patriarchal culture, may reflect a preceding matriarchal age when women were the dominant sex.
6. The author of the preceding passage makes all the following assumptions, except
A. The culture of an age will be reflected in its myth.
B. Celtic myths are different from the myths of other cultures.
C. A culture may be either matriarchal or patriarchal.
D. A myth may reflect the culture of an earlier age.
E. A patriarchal culture is likely to create myths of powerful men.
Question 7 refers to the following passage.
Contrary to traditional belief, contemporary research shows that a child’s measure of intelligence is multidimensional and is primarily influenced by a combination of hereditary and learned environmental influences. For many years, studies have shown that children’s IQ scores can improve when environmental factors are enriched. Further studies show that cognition can be influenced as early as infancy, and that children who were breastfed for at least six months during infancy score higher on tests later in life.
7. The passage is primarily concerned with
A. the impact of nonhereditary influences on a child’s intelligence.
B. recent research in the field of psychology.
C. the ways in which intelligence can be genetically inherited.
D. socioeconomic factors that can lead to developmental advantages.
E. presenting examples of both the hereditary and learned factors in IQ testing.
Question 8 refers to the following passage.
Since the writings of Aristotle, the doctrine of association has been the basis for explaining how one idea leads to another. In other words, when you experience two events contiguously in the same place or at the same time or both, they become linked in your mind. In psychology, word association tests are based on contiguity; the idea being that your response to a particular word is based on your personal history.
8. Which of the following examples most strengthens the main point of the passage?
A. Some people are able to experience more than two events contiguously.
B. Unexpected pain instinctively provokes fear in most people.
C. Aristotle’s writing is full of unexplained associations.
D. People who make unusual associations are often mentally disturbed, whereas people who make overly predictable associations often lack creativity.
E. Many Afghan refugees who endured bombings are still frightened by loud noises.
Questions 9—14 refer to the following passage.
(1) According to a recent set of calculations by Frank D. Drake, a University of California, Santa Cruz astronomer, between ten thousand and one hundred thousand “advanced” civilizations (this, dubiously, includes us) exist in our own Milky Way galaxy alone.
(2) So the question is not “Are there more advanced creatures out there?” but “What will they do to us when they find us?” (3) To answer, consider what we have done to chimpanzees and gorillas, creatures that stand in a relationship to us that may parallel the relationship we could have to the extraterrestrials. (4) We steal their habitats, experiment on them, cage them in zoos to satisfy our curiosity, train them to perform tricks for audiences, kill them to display their body parts, eat them, and attempt to have them do useful work—slave labor.
(5) L. S. Shklovskii and Carl Sagan’s five-hundred-page book Intelligent Life in the Universe devotes only four sentences to the possibility that anything bad might result from letting extraterrestrial civilizations know of our existence and location, and astronomers today are equally non-pessimistic. (6) Such optimism is naive, both philosophically and scientifically. (7) Contrary to the fantasy of advanced extraterrestrials helping us in our own progress, __________________.
9. Which of the following explains the writer’s purpose of the second paragraph?
A. To encourage increased expenditure on space exploration
B. To argue for the existence of UFOs
C. To comment on humans’ treatment of animals
D. To assert the probability of life on other planets
E. To question the likelihood of extraterrestrial life
10. Which of the following, if added to the end of Sentence 7 at the end of the third paragraph, would be the most consistent with the writer’s purpose?
A. the likely result of contact would aid in further space exploration
B. the likely result of contact would be the most surreal disaster to befall on our species
C. the likely result of contact would expand our knowledge of a benevolent species
D. the likely result of contact would lead to trade exchanges with other civilizations
E. the likely result of contact would promote a religious following
11. Which of the following words best describes the author’s attitude toward Earth’s present inhabitants?
A. Advanced
B. Dubious
C. Intelligent
D. Simple
E. Temporary
12. In Sentence 2, the author suggests that the question “Are there more advanced creatures out there?” should not be asked because
A. the answer is clearly “yes.”
B. the answer is clearly “no.”
C. the answer can never be known.
D. the answer is irrelevant to contemporary human concerns.
E. the question is unscientific.
13. The author assumes that the relation of extraterrestrials to humans would resemble that of
A. humans to religiously worshipped beings.
B. women to men.
C. children to parents.
D. slaves to free people.
E. humans to animals.
14. This passage would most appropriately appear in a(n)
A. book on astronomy.
B. book on astrology.
C. collection of science fiction stories.
D. collection of satirical essays on human nature.
E. introductory science textbook.
Question 15 refers to the following passage.
We all know life originated in the ocean. Science tells us so. Perhaps a bolt of lightning struck through the ammonia and methane gases of a volcanic planet, igniting some form of life in the primordial soup of the storm-tormented sea. But no scientific theory is sacrosanct. Now a group of scientists says we have it all wrong: Life originated in clay.
15. The preceding passage
A. suggests that Earth began as clay, not water.
B. implies that Darwin’s theory of the origin of species is the only plausible theory.
C. implies that scientists are usually proven wrong.
D. presents an alternative theory about the creation of life.
E. denies the existence of life in the primordial ocean.
Questions 16—18 refer to the following passage.
(1) The new Florida Gulf Coast University is offering its students a wide choice of new kinds of classes. (2) Some are given on weekends, some in off-campus locations, and some by online distance learning. (3) Almost 70 percent of this term’s courses will be conducted electronically, and many students will never see the campus. (4) The school has elected to eliminate many things people expect to find at a university. (5) There are no dorms, no football stadium, no intercollegiate athletics. (6) The average freshman is not an 18-year-old just out of high school but a 33-year-old with 15 years of work experience. (7) The president of the student body is a grandmother.
(8) Unlike the other state universities, Florida Gulf Coast will focus on the education of an older generation of students. (9) About 80 percent of the students will be part-time. (10) More than half the classes will be offered at night. (11) Career-oriented fields like health care and real estate will be taught at several off-campus sites. (12) In a cyberspace age, this university will prove how well “distance learning” can work.
16. Which of the following best describes the relationship between Sentences 1 and 2 of the first paragraph?
A. Sentence 1 is literal; Sentence 2 is figurative.
B. Sentence 1 raises a question; Sentence 2 answers it.
C. Sentence 1 is general; Sentence 2 is specific.
D. Sentence 1 is factual; Sentence 2 is an opinion.
E. Sentence 1 refers to a primary source; Sentence 2 refers to a secondary source.
17. Which two sentences provide the best summary of the first paragraph?
A. Sentences 1 and 3
B. Sentences 1 and 4
C. Sentences 2 and 5
D. Sentences 3 and 6
E. Sentences 3 and 7
18. From the passage as a whole, you can infer that the phrase “distance learning” in the final sentence refers to
A. instruction in a college classroom.
B. instruction using visual aids.
C. classes in which no grades are awarded.
D. classes in nonacademic subjects such as real estate.
E. instruction apart from a central campus.
Question 19 refers to the following passage.
Locomotor skills are basic movement skills that are performed in different directions and at different speeds. They are dynamic movements that propel the body upward, forward, or backward from one place to another. These movements are the foundation of gross motor coordination, involving large and small muscle movements. There are many different combinations of movement patterns that can describe the type of locomotor skills.
19. The writer infers that which of the following would require the use of locomotor skills?
A. A static player waiting to catch a Frisbee
B. A farmer slapping a fly off of his arm
C. A teacher slowly walking down a hallway while reading a paper
D. A student typing a term paper
E. A baseball player in left field waiting for the batter to hit the ball
Questions 20—24 refer to the following passage.
(1) Woodrow Wilson’s meteoric career trajectory took off in 1910 when he was elected to his first office as governor of New Jersey. (2) At the time, Wilson was a conservative Democrat. (3) When the Democratic Party first proposed Wilson’s presidential nomination in 1912, young New Jersey progressives were not interested; but when Wilson assured them he would champion the progressive cause, they decided to work for Wilson’s election. (4) Between 1911 and 1913, Wilson enacted many progressive reforms as governor.
(5) In the election of 1912, ____________________. (6) Wilson emerged as a moderate Democratic candidate between the conservative Republican, William H. Taft, and the more radical progressive, Theodore Roosevelt. (7) Wilson called his pro-business program the New Freedom, which called for the restoration of free market competition, as it had existed before the rise of the trusts. (8) In contrast, Roosevelt advocated New Nationalism, which called for major federal interventions in the economy. (9) Wilson believed the trusts should be destroyed, but he distinguished between monopoly-seeking trusts and legitimately successful big businesses. (10) Roosevelt, on the other hand, accepted the trusts as inevitable but believed that the government should establish a new regulatory agency to provide oversight and make them accountable.
20. Which of the following best describes the author’s main purpose in writing this passage?
A. To argue that Wilson was one of the great U.S. presidents
B. To survey the differences between Wilson, Taft, and Roosevelt
C. To explain Wilson’s concept of the New Freedom
D. To trace major developments in Wilson’s political career
E. To point out the importance of a gubernatorial experience for presidential candidates
21. The author implies which of the following about the New Jersey progressives?
A. They did not support Wilson after he was governor.
B. They were not conservative Democrats.
C. They were more interested in political expediency than in political causes or reforms.
D. They did not support Wilson in his bid for election.
E. They particularly admired Wilson’s experience as president of Princeton University.
22. The passage supports which of the following conclusions about the progress of Wilson’s political career?
A. His rapid progression to higher office was enabled by a willingness to change his core political principles.
B. Failures late in his career caused him to be regarded as a president who regressed instead of progressed.
C. He encountered little opposition once he decided to seek the presidency.
D. The League of Nations marked the end of his reputation as a strong leader.
E. His political allies were Roosevelt and Taft.
23. Which of the following is the closest to the meaning of major federal interventions as used in the passage in Sentence 8?
A. Roosevelt’s proposal to regulate trusts by establishing a new government agency
B. Roosevelt’s proposal to weaken trusts by subsidizing legitimately successful businesses to encourage competition
C. Wilson’s proposal to destroy trusts to restore free competition as it had existed before
D. Wilson’s call for the government to take a more active stance in the economic life of the nation
E. Wilson’s New Freedom plan, which opposed monopolies and championed business enterprise
24. Which of the following, if added to Sentence 5 in paragraph two, would be most consistent with the writer’s purpose?
A. Woodrow Wilson won the election by an overwhelming majority.
B. The inexperience of Theodore Roosevelt accounted for his radical position.
C. Wilson was unable to attract two-thirds of the votes but won anyway.
D. There were three prominent candidates for the presidency.
E. Wilson’s New Freedom did not represent Democratic interests.
Question 25 refers to the following passage.
Adam Smith, the founder of the first comprehensive system of political economy, treated economic existence as the true human life and treated money making as the meaning of history. He was wont to describe statesmen as dangerous animals. Yet this very England became the foremost country, economically speaking, in the world at the time.
25. The meaning of wont in this passage is
A. desired.
B. did not.
C. accustomed.
D. unlikely.
E. unable.
Question 26 refers to the following passage.
Like many birds, the monarch butterfly is migratory. Once per year, more than 100 million of the insects fly from their summer homes in the north to areas in the south. Unlike migratory animals that learn their routes from their parents or other members of the species, the life span of the monarch is 90 days or less; an older generation cannot instruct a younger one.
26. Based on the information provided, all of the following could potentially explain how butterflies find their way when they migrate except
A. the direction of the prevailing winds in the area.
B. knowledge gained from a previous migration.
C. the position of the sun relative to Earth.
D. force lines of Earth’s magnetic field.
E. the changing length of days and nights.
Questions 27—29 are based on the following passage.
The evolution of the various forms of life from a given biochemical mass must not be considered a linear progression. Rather, the fossil record suggests an analogy between evolution and a bush whose branches go every which way. Like branches, some evolutionary lines simply end, while others branch again. Many biologists believe the pattern of evolution had the following course: Bacteria emerged first and from them branched viruses, red algae, blue-green algae, and green flagellates. From the latter branched green algae, from which higher plants evolved, as well as colorless rhizoflagellates, from which diatoms, molds, sponges, and protozoa evolved. From ciliated protozoa (ciliophora) evolved multinucleate (syncytial) flatworms. These branched into five lines, one of which leads to the echinoderms and chordates. The remaining lines lead to most of the other phyla of the animal kingdom.
27. Which of the following represents the author’s purpose for referencing the word bush in the second sentence?
A. To show how microscopic bacteria can eventually evolve into something entirely different
B. To create an analogy between its branches and the constantly improving nature of evolution
C. To provide a visual representation of the linear evolutionary paths of a particular species
D. To illustrate the unpredictability and finiteness of many evolutionary lines
E. To preface a discussion of botanical evolution with the current form of the species
28. According to the passage, it can be inferred that which of the following life forms have branched off first in the evolutionary process?
A. Green algae
B. Blue-green algae
C. Molds
D. Flatworms
E. Ciliated protozoa
29. According to the passage, the evolutionary line of sponges in its proper order is
A. bacteria—viruses—green algae—sponges.
B. bacteria—viruses—rhizoflagellates—sponges.
C. bacteria—red algae—blue-green algae—rhizoflagellates—sponges.
D. bacteria—blue-green algae—green flagellates—rhizoflagellates—sponges.
E. bacteria—green flagellates—green algae—rhizoflagellates—sponges.
Questions 30—32 refer to the following graph.
30. According to the graph, a married couple who had two children and earned a taxable income of $70,000 in 2020 would have paid
A. a higher percentage of income as income tax than in 2010.
B. a lower percentage of income as income tax than in 2010.
C. approximately the same percentage of income as income tax in 2010.
D. a higher dollar amount than in 2010.
E. approximately the same dollar amount as in 2010.
31. According to the graph, the percentage of taxable income of the individual income tax in 2020 would be closest to that of 2010 if a married couple with two children was earning approximately
A. $5,000
B. $15,000
C. $25,000
D. $65,000
E. $95,000
32. According to the graph, approximately what percentage of their taxable income would a married couple who had two children and earned $55,000 have paid in taxes in 2010?
A. 22 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 30 percent
D. 35 percent
E. 40 percent
Question 33 refers to the following passage.
Prior to the 1980s, educational psychologists were primarily concerned with specific social, motivational, and cognitive aspects of learning. Recent comprehensive studies of early classroom learning experiences have drawn attention to the importance of multiple approaches to academic learning. Classroom curriculum now emphasizes activities that are sensitive to the unique differentiated abilities of individual students.
33. One of the author’s points in this passage is that
A. prior to the 1980s, no one noticed that the concerns of educational psychologists were limited.
B. educational psychologists tend to frequently shift their interests as a group.
C. after 1980, psychologists lost interest in the social, motivational, and cognitive aspects of learning.
D. the academic significance of classroom activities themselves has not been the concern of educational psychologists until fairly recently.
E. the decades preceding the 1980s were marked by poorly thought out, poorly implemented classroom activities.
Question 34 refers to the following passage.
The products of Cro-Magnons, who lived more than 50,000 years ago, include tools of diverse shapes and multi-piece modern weapons. However, of all the Cro-Magnon products that have been unearthed, the best known are their works of art. Anyone who has seen the life-sized paintings of bulls and horses in the Lascaux Cave paintings in southwestern France will acknowledge that their creators were ancestors of modern man.
34. According to the passage, it can be inferred that
A. the images painted in the Lascaux Cave by the Cro-Magnons are clearly recognizable today.
B. the weapons created during the Cro-Magnon era differ from those created by Neanderthals.
C. art was one of the Cro-Magnons’ primary interests.
D. the production of art is more significant than the production of tools in a civilization.
E. the Cro-Magnons are the oldest representative of the human species.
Questions 35—37 refer to the following passage.
In mutualistic interactions, two or more species benefit from one another, each helping the other. For example, bees and flowers help one another. The bees take nectar and pollen from the flowers for food while also assisting with the spreading of pollen from one flower to another. Neither organism is harmed during their interactions. Another example is lichens, which are made up of fungi and algae living together in a symbiotic relationship. The fungi provide shelter for the algae, and the algae provide food for the fungi through their photosynthetic abilities.
35. Which of the following is an example of a mutualistic interaction, as defined by the author of the passage?
A. A woodsman hunting deer for sustenance
B. A homeowner hiring a plumber to fix leaking pipes
C. Birds eating insects off of the backs of elephants
D. Bacteria that grow on decayed fruit
E. Sea anemones using their deadly tentacles to paralyze their prey
36. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Aside from bees, no other insects assist in the spreading of pollen.
B. Algae benefit from living in a sheltered environment.
C. No bees are ever harmed during the process of pollination.
D. Fungi cannot survive without the presence of algae.
E. Every species has at least one other species with which it has a mutualistic interaction.
37. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the passage?
A. To educate the reader on the pollination process
B. To detail the relationship between algae and fungi in lichens
C. To show that many species are able to coexist without hurting one another
D. To define and give examples of a term
E. To argue that mutualistic interactions are a positive phenomenon in nature
Question 38 refers to the following passage.
According to a recent study, 60 percent of the men and women called for jury duty in Los Angeles County believe that a person should be presumed innocent until proven guilty. Sixty-five percent of the same group said that if a person has been indicted by a grand jury, that person is likely to be guilty.
38. This information could be best used to support an argument that
A. the jury system is the fairest way of dealing with people accused of crimes.
B. either the grand jury system or the jury system should be discontinued.
C. accused persons can depend on the jury’s presuming them to be innocent at the outset of their trials.
D. juries are prejudiced by a grand jury’s indictments.
E. trial before a judge without a jury is fairer to the accused than trial before a jury.
Questions 39—41 refer to the following passage.
A unicorn is a mythical beast, you say. Oh, no, it isn’t. Unicorns have been in the news for several years, appearing at carnivals and festivals. One of the first modern-day unicorns was created in 1933 by Dr. W. Franklin Dove at the University of Maine. Dr. Dove transplanted the horn buds of a day-old Ayrshire bull calf from the side of its head to the center. In later life, the horn proved to be a great weapon, and the dairy bull became the leader of the herd.
Powdered unicorn horns were valued in ancient times as an antidote to poison. The powder also was considered a cure for epilepsy, plague, hydrophobia, drunkenness, and worms. Julius Caesar believed in unicorns, as did Pliny and Aristotle. In ancient days, hunters were convinced that unicorns were suckers for purity and beauty. They would station a young virgin in the center of a forest glen. Soon a unicorn would approach and put his head meekly in her lap. That was the way they captured unicorns in the old days. It must have worked because one doesn’t see too many unicorns around.
39. Which of the following can be inferred from the preceding passage?
A. Unicorns were proven to have existed many years ago.
B. The ASPCA wants to protect unicorns.
C. Mythical creatures may occasionally be the product of another species.
D. Only bull calves can pass for the mythical unicorn.
E. Many carnivals and festivals will soon have their own unicorns.
40. According to the passage, unicorns could be captured by
A. transplanting the horn buds of a day-old bull calf.
B. fusing together an infant goat’s horns.
C. performing a painless operation.
D. enticing the creature with a beautiful virgin.
E. using an antidote for poison.
41. Which of the following is least relevant to an attribute of a unicorn’s horn?
A. A cure for epilepsy
B. A great weapon
C. A beauty aid
D. An antidote to poison
E. A cure for worms
Questions 42—43 refer to the following passage.
Politicians who stay in office longest are usually risk averse, and those who speak out for change, for what is necessary but unpopular or costly, are generally regarded as politically naive. To speak freely, one must have one foot out the door.
42. Which of the following is the best description of an enduring politician as implied by this passage?
A. One who encourages change
B. One who understands what is necessary
C. One who avoids the unpopular stand
D. One who supports the taking of risks
E. One who speaks honestly
43. Which of the following is the best meaning of the second sentence?
A. Politicians who tell the truth must do so with an eye to the future.
B. Dishonest politicians are likely to be voted out of office.
C. Only the politician about to leave politics can tell the truth.
D. Politicians who speak freely must be able to think fast.
E. Freedom of speech is a privilege free people do not value sufficiently.
Questions 44—46 are based on the following passage.
Fine arts have been dismissed by some legislators as academic entertainment. As we strive not merely to amuse but to reveal the great truths of human nature, we must remember that some regard our performances as “sound and fury, signifying nothing.”
44. Which of the following can be inferred about the author of the passage?
A. He or she is a citizen writing to a legislator.
B. He or she is an actor writing to other actors.
C. He or she is an actor playing a part.
D. He or she is a painter writing to other painters.
E. He or she is a philosopher writing to political scientists.
45. The author of the passage supports a concept of art as
A. a political activity.
B. more than entertainment.
C. empty of entertainment value.
D. generously subsidized by the government.
E. of no use to a serious audience.
46. The author most likely repeats the word some in the second sentence in order to indicate that
A. the problem described is a relatively small one.
B. the legislators may be in the same group that regards performances as signifying nothing.
C. the actor will never meet with a wholly sympathetic audience.
D. the “sound and fury” on stage is paralleled in the legislature.
E. most members of the audience are merely amused.
Questions 47—48 refer to the following passage.
In modern society, those who are most adaptable to both an inflating economy and the decreasing value of non-creative work will survive in comfort; it is these survivors who will have the most value in the future, rather than the typical “workaholic” who has thrived in the past.
47. According to the passage, it is implied that the kind of value that the survivors possess is
A. increasing.
B. decreasing.
C. reliable.
D. fleeting.
E. unstated.
48. What conclusion can be drawn about value if we accept the author’s statement?
A. Value transcends the factors of time and place.
B. Survival is priceless and unrelated to economic forces.
C. Decreasing value must be tolerated.
D. Socioeconomic factors affect the definition of value.
E. Value is inversely proportional to the economy.
Questions 49—50 refer to the following passage.
Biodiversity, or “the variability among living organisms from all sources,” has recently become a hot topic in the news. Scientists and other experts in the field agree that biological diversity is essential to the functioning of all ecosystems, and by extension, to the ecosystem services that nature provides to humans. Living organisms play a fundamental role in the cycles of major elements, such as carbon and nitrogen, and in the water of our environment. Estimates of how many species currently live on Earth vary widely, largely because most living species are microorganisms and tiny invertebrates, but roughly 1.5 million have been named.
49. In the context in which it appears in the passage, which of the following is an example of an ecosystem service?
A. Creation of new species
B. Regeneration of species
C. Cycle of nitrogen
D. Human engineering
E. Accelerated degradation
50. According to the passage, no one knows the exact number of species on Earth because
A. some species are too small to count.
B. scientists disagree on the exact definition of “species.”
C. the number of species increases continually.
D. the number of species decreases continually.
E. species are too widely dispersed.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.