CliffsNotes CBEST - BTPS TESTING Ph.D., Jerry Bobrow Ph.D. & 8 more 2021

Answers and explanations
Practice Test 4

Section I: Reading

1. C. Choice C is the only possible answer, as the entire passage serves to educate the reader on the origins of the two competing temperature scales. Choices A, B, D, and E might seem like possible answers, but there is not enough detail and focus to make them a main point. The history and early origins of meteorology are only secondary discussion points (choice A); there is no discussion of general discord between scientists and inventors (choice B); the mechanics of thermometers are only discussed in one sentence (choice D); and the passage spends too much time on the origins of the two temperature scales for its primary purpose to merely compare and contrast the two (choice E).

2. B. In Sentence 7, the author notes that Both the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales are used today, and in Sentence 9, the author notes Many people simply want to know how cold or warm the weather is going to be. These claims, combined with the lack of arguments presented in favor of maintaining two systems, make choice B the best answer: It would be ideal if only one of the systems was used to prevent confusion. Choice A is incorrect because the author makes no judgment, despite mentioning that others have questioned Fahrenheit’s designations. There is no evidence in the passage that Celsius questioned Fahrenheit’s measurement methods, as in choice C, even though he chose a different freezing point. Choice D is incorrect because the author does not claim that the use of the two methods can cause serious problems or should be eliminated, merely that it can be confusing. Choice E is not addressed in the passage.

3. E. Since fortissimo (very loud) refers to the dynamics of music, and Dynamics is section G, the correct answer must begin with the letter “G.” Next, when considering the two items in section G, it may be tempting to stop at G.1 (Loudness and softness of music), but the correct answer is G.2 because it is more specific, containing the terms for loud or soft music. (Note, however, that only one answer begins with the letter “G,” so choice E must be the correct answer, regardless of any difference between sections G.1 and G.2.)

4. B. From the information given in the outline, the repetition of elements in form creates unity (see section D.3), choice B. While the other choices bring up key words that appear in the outline, they are irrelevant to answering this particular question.

5. A. In section H, the outline considers two aspects of “Timbre,” first as a unique tonal quality and second as the characteristic sound produced by each instrument family. The question refers to woodwinds, but the two defining elements of timbre are included: “the unique tonal sound” and “woodwind family.” Therefore, choice A must be the correct answer.

6. B. The ideas in choices A, C, D, and E appear to be assumptions underlying the ideas in this passage. However, the passage provides no information regarding how Celtic myths do or do not differ from the myths of other cultures, choice B. Therefore, choice B is the exception, and the correct answer.

7. A. The majority of the passage discusses environmental and nonhereditary influences on the development of intelligence, and while the first sentence (Contrary to . . . ) does discuss the multidimensionality of intelligence, its phrasing emphasizes the nonhereditary side, choice A. Choices B and C are secondary points, and choice D is not mentioned. Choice E is incorrect because no examples of hereditary factors in intelligence are presented.

8. E. The main point of the paragraph is expressed in the second sentence: . . . when you experience two events contiguously in the same place or at the same time or both, they become linked in your mind. This idea is strengthened by the example of refugees still carrying with them the association of loud noises to bombings, choice E. Choices A, C, and D are not examples of association by contiguity. Choice B points to an instinctive reaction, rather than an example of a specific association with something that once occurred.

9. C. The second paragraph shifts the focus from other civilizations in the universe to a critical comment on humans’ treatment of the nonhuman creatures on Earth, choice C. The ideas in choices A, B, and E are not consistent with the passage. Choice D, while an underlying idea of the second paragraph, is not its purpose.

10. B. All the ideas enumerated in choices A, C, D, and E underlie a positive outcome of extraterrestrial contact. However, the author does not assume that other civilizations are likely to be benevolent to humans; rather, the author repeatedly draws a parallel with the way humans have mistreated animals throughout history and, thus, assumes that humans will in turn be mistreated by extraterrestrial civilizations, choice B.

11. B. In Sentence 1, the author uses the word dubiously (meaning “doubtful”) as a sarcastic parenthetical aside, implying that the author questions the accuracy of including our present human civilization on any list of “advanced” civilizations in the universe, choice B. The author’s attitude toward human civilization, jaded and somewhat cynical, is revealed even more clearly in the second and third paragraphs of the essay.

12. A. The author asserts that the existence of more advanced cultures elsewhere in the universe is a fact. Thus, choice A is correct; the author’s answer to the question he or she poses in the second paragraph is clearly “yes.” The other choices do not accurately reflect the author’s position on that question.

13. E. Choice E correctly restates the author’s main concern; the passage is a warning that extraterrestrials may treat humans no better than humans have treated animals, choice E. None of the ideas stated in the other choices actually appears in the passage. Do not be tricked by choice D, which reverses the nature of the relationship.

14. D. The passage contains repeated references to extraterrestrials and to outer space, but that is mere “window dressing.” The central theme of this passage actually relates to “civilized” humans and their uncivilized cruelty to animals. Thus, this passage may be best understood if it is read not as science nor as science fiction, but rather as a satire critical of human nature, choice D.

15. D. The brief passage introduces an alternative theory that life may have begun in clay instead of water as scientists have believed, choice D. Choice A distracts you from the correct answer because it refers to the beginnings of Earth instead of the beginnings of life. Choices B and C are not reasonable because they are not mentioned, nor implied, in the passage. Choice E is contrary to the purpose of the passage.

16. C. Choice C correctly describes the relationship of these two sentences. The first sentence is general (a wide choice of new kinds of classes), whereas the second sentence is much more specific (classes given on weekends, in off-campus locations, online distance learning). The other choices all contain specific factual errors; both sentences are literal and factual (so choices A and D can be eliminated), and neither raises a question or refers to primary or secondary sources (so choices B and E cannot be correct).

17. B. Choice B is correct because sentences 1 and 4 are both general statements, describing the varied choice of classes and the elimination of some things one might expect to find at a college. The other choices are all too specific to appropriately sum up the entire paragraph. Sentences 2 and 3 merely give examples of the first idea, and sentences 5, 6, and 7 illustrate the fourth idea. The meaning of the paragraph would still be clear if these examples were not used.

18. E. Choice E is correct; the phrase “distance learning” refers to learning online outside of a conventional campus classroom. Choice A contradicts the definition from the passage, and choices B, C, and D are all irrelevant to answering this question.

19. C. The author describes locomotor skills as dynamic movements that propel the body upward, forward, or backward. Choice C is correct; the qualifier at different speeds in the first sentence of the passage indicates that walking slowly still requires the use of locomotor skills. Choice B, however, is incorrect, as slapping one’s arm does not fit the criteria described for locomotor skills, which specifically state that dynamic movements propel the body from one place to another. Choices A, D, and E are incorrect because the people are stationary (e.g., static).

20. D. Tracing major developments of Wilson’s career most clearly clarifies the passage’s main purpose, choice D. Choice A is not implied in the passage, and choices B, C, and E identify supporting details rather than the main purpose, which is expressed in the opening phrase of the passage Wilson’s meteoric career trajectory. Thus, the differences among the candidates (choice B), Wilson’s New Freedom plan (choice C), and the importance of a gubernatorial experience for prospective presidents (choice E) may be individual factors in Wilson’s career.

21. B. In the first paragraph, Wilson’s decision to champion the progressive cause after 1912 is contrasted with his earlier career, when he seemed to be a conservative Democrat. Thus, you may conclude that the progressives, whom Wilson finally joined, were not conservative Democrats as Wilson was earlier in his career, choice B. Choices A and D contradict information in the paragraph, while choices C and E are not suggested by any information given in the passage.

22. A. The first sentence describes Wilson’s ascension as meteoric, which supports the first portion of choice A. The author also describes how Wilson’s 1912 Democratic nomination was made possible by changing from conservative to progressive over the span of several years, which supports the second portion of choice A. Choice B is incorrect because late-career failures are not discussed in the passage. Choice C is never implied and contradicts the opposition from New Jersey progressives described in the first paragraph. Choice D is incorrect because the League of Nations is never discussed, and choice E is incorrect because Roosevelt and Taft are described as Wilson’s competition for the presidency, not his political allies.

23. A. Major federal interventions were a feature of Roosevelt’s New Nationalism proposal to regulate trusts by establishing a new government agency, choice A. According to the passage, Roosevelt accepted trusts rather than sought to weaken them and was not pro-business; this eliminates answer choice B. Choices C, D, and E are incorrect because they instead refer to features of Wilson’s New Freedom plan, which did not call for major federal interventions.

24. D. Choices A, B, and C contain information that the passage does not address. You may eliminate them as irrelevant. Choice E contradicts the fact that Wilson was a Democratic candidate. The discussion of Taft and Roosevelt as the candidates who ran against Wilson for the presidency supports choice D. The passage states that Wilson emerged as a moderate candidate between [Taft and Roosevelt], which implies that they were the three primary candidates in the election.

25. C. The passage suggests that Adam Smith considered statesmen in a negative way; thus, you can determine from context that wont is probably used to mean “accustomed,” choice C. Notice that choices A and B are verbs, words that cannot be substituted for the adjective wont in the sentence. Choices D and E are contradictions to the meaning of the sentence.

26. B. The paragraph mentions that monarchs only migrate once per year and do not live longer than 90 days. Therefore, each monarch is only alive for a maximum of one migration and cannot gain knowledge from a previous migration, choice B. All other choices are consistent with information in the passage.

27. D. The author makes the bush analogy to represent how evolutionary lines go every which way and sometimes simply end, rather than continue in a linear progression, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A and E mistakenly connect the analogy to the later discussion of early evolutionary patterns, while choice B misses the point of the analogy. Choice C’s reference to the linear nature of evolution contradicts the main point of the passage and analogy.

28. B. Of the answer choices given, blue-green algae, choice B, are the earliest step on the evolutionary ladder, as we can see from the following section of the passage: Bacteria emerged first and from them branched viruses, red algae, blue-green algae, and green flagellates. From the latter branched green algae [choice A], from which higher plants evolved, and colorless rhizoflagellates, from which diatoms, molds [choice C], sponges, and protozoa evolved. From ciliated protozoa (ciliophora) [choice E] evolved multinucleate (syncytial) flatworms [choice D].

29. E. The passage presents sponges as evolving from rhizoflagellates, which came from green algae, which came from green flagellates, which came from bacteria. Thus, choice E is correct. Choices A, B, C, and D all show a different evolutionary pattern, and therefore, are incorrect.

30. B. Choice B is correct; the percentage rate of taxes in 2020 (the solid line) is about 10 percent lower than the tax rate in 2010 (the dashed line). Choices A and C both misstate this percentage relationship; the tax rate in 2020 was neither higher than nor equal to the rate in 2010. Choices D and E refer to dollar amounts, but they make the same mistake; the dollar amount paid in 2020 was not higher than in 2010, nor was it about the same.

31. A. The correct answer is found where the solid line for 2020 and the dashed line for 2010 come together and then cross one another—at approximately $5,000, choice A. The other choices are inaccurate according to the graph.

32. C. The correct answer, choice C, 30 percent, is found using a three-step process. First, find the spot for $55,000 on the bottom line, the Thousands of Dollars of Income scale. Next, go straight up to find a point on the dashed 2010 line (directly above the point for $55,000). Finally, go to the left, to the Percentage of Taxable Income vertical scale, and you see that the percentage rate is approximately 30 percent for $55,000 in 2010.

33. D. The author contrasts the early concern with social, motivational, and aptitudinal aspects of learning with the more recent interest in class activities, choice D. None of the other choices expresses an explicit point of the passage.

34. A. The author uses present tense when referring to people seeing the paintings up close, implying that it is possible to currently do so and that the images are clearly recognizable, choice A. Choice B is incorrect because no reference is made to Neanderthals, and choice C is incorrect because no mention is made of art as primary in the Cro-Magnons’ hierarchy of interests. Choice D makes too significant of a logical jump from the passage’s claim that art is the best known of the Cro-Magnons’ tools, and choice E is never suggested by the author.

35. C. The passage defines a mutualistic interaction as one in which two or more species benefit from one another, each helping the other. Choice C embodies this sort of interaction, as the birds receive food and the elephants enjoy a reduction in the number of insects on their backs. Choices A and E are incorrect because the deer (and the anemones’ prey) do not benefit from the interaction, and choice B is incorrect because there are not multiple species interacting. Choice D does not represent the mutual interface between two living species.

36. B. The example of the benefit gained by algae in its relationship with fungi is shelter; therefore, it must logically follow that algae benefit from living in a sheltered environment, as put forth by choice B. Choice A is incorrect because bees do not need to be the only method of pollen transport for the relationship to be beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because bees could be harmed by outside factors during the otherwise beneficial process of pollination. Choice D is incorrect because the author does not imply that coexisting with algae is the only way for fungi to receive food. Choice E is not an assumption underlying the passage.

37. D. Choice D is correct; the purpose of the passage is to define mutualistic interactions, then provide examples of these interactions. Choices A and B present secondary purposes, while choices C and E present arguments or claims that the author does not attempt to make; rather, the author presents the facts without editorializing.

38. D. If 65 percent of the prospective jurors do, indeed, believe that a person indicted by a grand jury is likely to be guilty, then choice D is the correct answer; almost two-thirds of a jury is prejudiced by a grand jury’s indictment. Choices A and C contradict the passage: Choice A states that juries are the fairest system, which is not supported by the passage. Choice C incorrectly states that juries have a presumption of innocence. The other two choices, B and E, both posit conclusions that are not warranted by the information in the passage.

39. C. Choice C states that a mythical creature may actually be the product of another species, an idea that follows directly from the information in the passage. One cited example is Dr. Dove transplanting the horn of a calf from the side of its head to the center to produce a mythical creature (unicorn) from another species (Ayrshire dairy bull). Choice A is inaccurate because unicorns were not proven to have existed. Choice B can be eliminated because it is not mentioned in the passage. Choice D wrongly uses the absolute term only. Choice E is unreasonable.

40. D. The passage states that unicorns could be captured by using a virgin’s beauty to lure the creature from its forest home, choice D. All the other choices mention ideas that are included in the passage, but none of them accurately identifies the specific information to answer this question about capturing a unicorn.

41. C. The second paragraph states that a unicorn’s horn was used as a cure for epilepsy, choice A. The passage illustrates how the horn was used as a great weapon (choice B), an antidote to poison (choice D), and a cure for worms (choice E). However, a beauty aid, choice C, was never mentioned as a possible attribute of a unicorn’s horn.

42. C. The passage suggests that the best way to prolong a political career is not to anger voters; for example, by avoiding risk-taking and by refusing to defend unpopular causes, choice C. Choices A, D, and E all contradict the passage, and choice B misstates the author’s point. Understanding what is necessary and actually doing what is necessary are two very different things.

43. C. Choice C provides the best restatement of the idea in the second sentence; namely, that any politician who wants to continue in politics cannot afford to tell the truth. The statement in choice A is close in meaning to the second sentence, but it is not as accurate as choice C. The ideas in choices B, D, and E are not supported by this passage.

44. B. The we in the passage tells us that the author counts himself or herself among those who give performances, which rules out choices A, D, and E. Given that the author is discussing a serious subject and the perception of acting itself, it is more likely that the author is addressing other actors, choice B, rather than performing for an audience’s entertainment (choice C).

45. B. As the author says, art is not merely to amuse, meaning it is more than entertainment, choice B. Choices A and C exaggerate the author’s emphasis on the serious side of art, while choice D is never suggested. Choice E contradicts the author’s main point.

46. B. The repeat of some recalls the earlier mention of some legislators and indicates that the legislators may be part of the group of people who do not appreciate the full value of art, choice B. The author’s tone runs contrary to the implication of choice A, and choices C and E present an overly pessimistic interpretation of the author’s point. Choice D is not implied.

47. E. The author says that survivors will be adaptable but does not specify the way in which adaptability will be a value, choice E. The author does not suggest that the absolute level of value will increase or decrease (choices A and B), and the author does not imply anything about the staying power of the value, as implied by choices C and D.

48. D. Choice D is directly relevant to the author’s assertion that the economy is a significant factor in the determination of value. Choices A and B contradict the author’s claims, and choices C and E are never suggested by the author.

49. C. The passage specifically cites biodiversity as essential for the cycles of major elements such as nitrogen, which the passage refers to as an ecosystem service, making choice C correct. None of the other answer choices refers to an ecosystem service.

50. A. The implication is that estimates of the number of species are not exact because most are microorganisms and tiny invertebrates, making them too small to count, choice A. Choice B, C, D, and E are not supported in the passage.

Section II: Mathematics

1. C. Set up the problem as a proportion and cross-multiply to solve for x.

2. B. The decimal equivalent of the fraction may be found by dividing the numerator by the denominator, or 3 divided by 8:

The closest answer is 0.38, choice B.

3. C. Use math reasoning and simple calculations to answer this question. Let’s look at a real-life example to illustrate the correct answer, choice C. Suppose a package of cheese contains 8 slices and a package of turkey contains 6 slices. The least number of packages of cheese and turkey that you would need to buy is 24 (the least common multiple of 6 and 8). The quantity of 24 packages will ensure that you will not have any leftover slices of cheese or turkey.

4. D. Remember, we are looking for integer values. Since the perimeter of the rectangle is 40, the length plus the width of the rectangle is 20. The width and length values of 1 and 19, 2 and 18, 3 and 17, and 4 and 16 are all eliminated since the width is less than one-third the length. A width of 5 and a length of 15 produces an area of 75, choice D. A width of 6 and a length of 14 would work, but the product, 84, is not one of the answer choices. Same for a width of 7 and a length of 13 (produces an area of 91) and a width of 8 and a length of 12 (produces an area of 96).

5. C. The best method to solve this problem is to round 6.23 down to 6 and round 0.83 up to 1. Then multiply 6 by 1 to get 6, choice C.

6. C. Depending on the date in 2025, Jerry could be 44 or 45, choice C. If the date is before December 4, he will be 44; if it is on or after December 4, Jerry will be 45.

7. A. Combining debts of $1,300 with a deficit of $2,800 gives a much greater deficit: —$2,800 + —$1,300 = —$4,100, choice A.

8. C. In 2013, the unemployment rate was approximately 8%. In 2019, the rate was approximately 4%. Therefore, 8% — 4% = 4% greater, choice C.

9. C. Melody’s average percentage was found by adding all of the test scores together and dividing by the number of tests.

Step 1: Find the total number of points scored on Melody’s tests.

8 tests × 78% (the average on each test so far) = 624

Step 2: Find the total number of points scored on 9 tests with an average of 80%.

9 tests × 80% (the average that she must achieve with 9 tests) = 720

Step 3: Answer the question by subtracting 624 from 720.

720 — 624 = 96

Melody will need to score 96% on her ninth test to maintain her scholarship, choice C.

10. C.

The problem requires that you translate symbols into numbers. Begin by calculating the value of one cross symbol. Because four of these cross symbols have a value of 12, one of them has a value of 3. The second line now is translated into 3 + three heart symbols = 18. Thus, three heart symbols have a value of 15, or one heart symbol has a value of 5.

The third line is now translated into 3 + 5 + two empty set symbols = 20. Two empty set symbols, therefore, have a value of 12, and each empty set symbol has a value of 6, choice C.

11. A. Look for patterns in numerators and denominators. In this case, the numerator increases, first by 1, then by 2, then by 3, and then by 4. If this pattern continues, the next numerator will increase by 5, making it 17. The denominators increase as well, first by 2, then by 4, then by 6, and then by 8. If this pattern continues, the next denominator will increase by 10, making it 33. Therefore, the next fraction in this list would be , choice A.

12. C. Nine hundred electric vehicles divided evenly into 80 train cars gives a quotient of cars. However, since electric vehicles cannot be divided into fractions, rounding up to the nearest whole number, 12, gives the smallest number of train cars required, choice C.

13. B. Draw a diagram and label it accordingly.

Use the formula P = 2l + 2w to determine the width of the rectangle. Replace with the correct dimensions to get:

14. A. To solve this problem, set up a ratio: . Cross-multiplying produces 3x = 33.6. Dividing each side of the equation by 3 results in x = 11.2 or gallons of heating oil required to heat 42 rooms, choice A.

15. B. Method 1: Algebraically: Let x equal number of roses; then 3x equals number of sunflowers. So,

Method 2: Working from the answer choices may be easier. Notice that only choice B, 3 roses, gives a total of $7.50, since 3 roses purchased means 9 sunflowers purchased (triple the number of roses). Three roses at $1 each plus 9 sunflowers at $0.50 each equals $3 + $4.50 = $7.50. Only Choice B results in $7.50 being spent on all the flowers.

16. D. The top of the pyramid has one piece of fruit. The layer below it is a square with two pieces of fruit per side. Hence, the second layer from the top contains four pieces of fruit. The layer below that forms a square with three pieces of fruit per side, so it contains nine pieces of fruit. Keep adding these square numbers together until the total is 140: 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + 25 + 36 + 49 = 140. Hence, 7 layers of fruit make up the pyramid, choice D.

17. C. Ratios can be expressed as fractions, with the numerator being the first value expressed in the ratio and the denominator the second value expressed in the ratio. Ratios that reduce to the same value are equal ratios. The ratio of pens to pencils = , which reduces to . Therefore choice A is true. (Remember, you are looking for the statement that is false.) The ratio of pens to markers = , which reduces to . In choice B, the ratio of pens to markers is 8 to 2, which also reduces to . Therefore choice B is true. The ratio of highlighters to pencils = , which reduces to . Choice C says the ratio of highlighters to pencils is 6 to 1, which is expressed as and is not the same as . Therefore choice C is false. Since the entire collection consists of 44 items (24 + 12 + 6 + 2 = 44) and there are 24 pens, more than half of the collection is made up of pens. Therefore choice D, which states that pens make up more than 50% of the collection is true. Only choice C is false.

18. B. Set up an equation:

Multiply both sides by :

Or, realizing that , divide by 3 to get . Multiply by 10 to get x = $50,000.

19. D. To answer this question, multiply 78¢ by 39.

0.78 × 39 = $30.42, choice D

Because of the range in choices, you can approximate by rounding both numbers up and multiplying.

0.80 × 40 = $32.00

Because you rounded up, your answer will be slightly less than $32.00. Choice D is the closest.

20. A. To change any fraction to a decimal, divide the denominator (bottom number) into the numerator (top number):

The correct answer is 0.125, choice A.

21. D. A regular pentagon has five equal sides. To determine the length of each side, divide: 90 feet ÷ 5 = 18 feet, choice D.

22. B. The highest average daily temperature during the dates shown was approximately 75°. The lowest was approximately 58°. Therefore, 75° — 58° = 17°, choice B.

23. B. The percentile score of each student shows how he or she did compared to the other students. Samantha’s score of 70 is the same as or better than 82% of the other students’ scores, choice B. Choice A is incorrect because a score of 70% incorrectly assumes that there were 100 questions on the test. Choice C is incorrect because Tony’s percentile score of 93% shows how he did in regard to the other students. Choice D is incorrect because 7% of the students did better than Tony. Choice E is incorrect because 60% of the students did worse than Isabella.

24. E. To determine the amount of paint used, you need to know the number of rooms painted and how many gallons were used in each room. Since the question itself provides the number of rooms painted, choice E provides the necessary information: number of rooms × average number of gallons used per room = total number of gallons used.

25. A. To answer this question, subtract the distance Lily walked from the distance Theo walked:

Theo walked more miles than Lily, choice A.

Another way to approach this is to change each mixed fraction to an improper fraction, then subtract and reduce your answer.

26. C. The problem can be solved by substituting the given values into the equation:

Therefore, t = 2.5, choice C.

27. D. In 2018, approximately 500 million barrels were in reserve. In 2012, approximately 100 million barrels were in reserve. Therefore, there were approximately 400 million, or 400,000,000, more barrels in reserve in 2018 than in 2012, choice D.

28. D. To find the perimeter of the pool, add together the lengths of its sides. The length of the side of each square on the grid is equal to 2 yards. The perimeter of the pool consists of 20 lengths of the squares. Therefore, the total perimeter is 20 × 2 yards = 40 yards, choice D.

29. C. Simple probability is computed by the number of possible “winners” out of the total number of possibilities. Since there are 6 odd numbers from 1 to 12 (1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11), out of a total of 12 numbers, the probability of getting an odd number is or , choice C.

30. B. The large carpet, 8' by 8', equals 64 square feet. A small square, 2' by 2', equals 4 square feet.

Dividing the large area of 64 by 4 equals 16 small squares, choice B.

31. D. To solve, you need to multiply . Canceling gives , choice D.

32. D. Since you are looking for the probability of teaching an Arabic or Hispanic student, you must first add:

Then get the total population: 15 + 12 + 8 + 5 = 40. And finally set up a fraction: , choice D.

33. E. If you know the number of days when Sandra doesn’t read any magazines, then simply divide the number of days she does read magazines into the number of magazines for an average. The correct answer is choice E.

34. D. The percent of people in Pasadena earning less than $10,000 per year is approximately 14%. The percent of people earning more than $200,000 per year is approximately 3%. Therefore, the difference in earnings by percent is 14% — 3% = 11%, choice D.

35. D. There are two methods you can use to solve this problem.

Method 1: Using arithmetic and logic. First, convert 6 hours to minutes.

6 hours × 60 = 360 minutes

Now find how long it takes to replace one hinge.

15 dozen hinges equals 15 × 12 = 180 hinges

360 minutes ÷ 180 hinges = 2 minutes to replace one hinge

Now, go back to the word problem, “how many minutes will it take to replace 36 hinges?”

36 hinges × 2 minutes each = 72 minutes to replace 36 hinges, choice D

Method 2: Using algebra. Since 15 dozen = 15 · 12 = 180 hinges,

The number of minutes is minutes.

36. D. Starting from the lower left-hand corner and simply counting the number of sides around the outside of the shaded area gives 16 sides. Since each side is 3 inches, multiply 16 × 3 = 48 inches, choice D.

37. E. The total charges (without tax) equal $18,600 + $1,800 = $20,400. To determine 8% of $20,400, multiply 0.08 by $20,400 = $1,632. The total price = $20,400 + $1,632 = $22,032, choice E.

38. A. Since Zion is shorter than Lebron and Stephen, and since Stephen is shorter than Jordan, who is shorter than Anthony, Zion is the shortest, choice A.

39. D. Use a proportion to solve the problem. If 12 cups of flour are used to make 5 cakes, then 36 cups of flour are used to make x number of cakes:

40. B. Since Mrs. Solis received a 30% discount, she paid 70% of the retail price: (0.70)($800) = $560, choice B.

41. E. Find the perimeter of a rectangle by adding the length to the width and doubling this sum: P = 2(15 + 18), choice E.

42. C. Twelve gallons is one-third more than 9 gallons. Therefore, the number of miles will be one-third more than 240, or 240 + 80 = 320, choice C. Or

43. C. To determine how large the largest score can be, let the other five scores be as small as possible; that is, 70, 71, 72, 73, and 74. Since the average of the score for the six tests is 76, the total of the six tests must be (76)(6) = 456. The smallest five scores add up to 70 + 71 + 72 + 73 + 74 = 360. This leaves 456 — 360 = 96 for the most that the largest test can be, choice C. This fact eliminates answer choices D and E, 97 and 98. Choice A is incorrect because if 78 is the highest score, then the other five different test scores would be 77, 76, 75, 74, and 73. All six tests would then total 453, not 456 (which would make the average score less than 76). Choice B is incorrect for the same reason; if 79 is the highest score, then the other five different test scores would be 78, 77, 76, 75, and 74, meaning all six tests would total 459, not 456 (which would make the average score higher than 76).

44. C. First, use proportions to find the actual distance to be traveled.

The distance to be traveled is 375 miles.

To find the amount of time it will take to travel this distance at 35 miles per hour, use the formula (rate) × (time) = (distance).

The resulting time is estimated between 10 and 11 hours, choice C.

45. B. Start by solving for y first. Since y × 4 produces a 4, y is either a 1 or a 6. (1 × 4 = 4, 6 × 4 = 24). If y is a 1, then the first product line would have to be the repeat of 2x4. Since this is not the case, the y must be 6.

Next, solve for x, which has to be a number that when it is multiplied by 6 (remember, y = 6) and 2 is added to that (6 × 4 = 24, carry the 2) the result ends in a zero. Only the values 3 or 8 can work. If x = 8, then 284 × 6 = 1,704, but the problem says it will be 1,404; hence, x ≠ 8. Therefore x = 3 and 234 × 6 = 1,404, as expected.

Finally, since 4 adds with z to make a number that ends in a 1, z must be 7.

Therefore, x = 3, y = 6, and z = 7.

46. A. In 2011, the difference between index ratios of bottom water and surface water was the greatest, 3.5 to 5, choice A.

47. D. Owner B used 1,080 minutes, 80 more than the basic plan allows. These extra minutes cost $0.50 each, or a total of (80)($0.50) = $40. Owner C used 1,420 minutes, 20 more than the family plan allows. These extra minutes cost $0.40 each, or a total of (20)($0.40) = $8. Owner B’s extra-minute cost exceeded Owner C’s extra-minute cost by $40 — $8 = $32. To calculate the percentage, divide this difference by Owner C’s extra-minute cost, or $32 ÷ $8 = 4 = 400%, choice D.

48. E.

Calculate Owner B’s savings:

Existing basic plan: $70 + (1,080 — 1,000)($0.50) = $70 + $40 = $110

Using the family plan: $90 + (0)($0.40) = $90

Savings using the family plan instead of the basic plan: $110 — $90 = $20

Calculate Owner D’s savings:

Existing smartphone plan: $120 + (0)($0.25) = $120

Using the family plan: $90 + (0)($0.40) = $90

Savings using the family plan instead of the smartphone plan: $120 — $90 = $30

Combined savings: $20 + $30 = $50, choice E

49. B. When of a number is increased by 4, the result is 13. Write this as an equation and solve for y.

50. A. Start by finding the probability of each spinner stopping on 3 on the first spin.

Spinner 1. The probability of the spinner stopping on 3 is .

Spinner 2. The probability of the spinner in stopping on 3 is .

Now find the product of Spinner 1 and Spinner 2.

Therefore, represents the probability of each spinner stopping on 3 on the first spin, choice A.

Section III: Writing

To help you evaluate your essay writing skills, review the two examples of written responses for Topic 1 and Topic 2. Compare your essay response to these examples and use the checklist (p. 307) to help you take a closer look and understand your scoring range.

Topic 1

C. S. Lewis once commented, “Integrity is doing the right thing, even when no one is watching.” Integrity is one of the many character traits that uniquely define how a person stands apart from others.

Assignment: In an essay to be read by an audience of educated adults, identify one important character trait of a good friend, such as “integrity” described by C. S. Lewis. Describe the trait and based on your personal experience, explain why you think that particular trait is more important than any other.

Sample Response: A Well-Written Essay

The nature of a forming friendship is unique to each relationship, but when starting a new friendship, I have never been consciously aware of the other person’s character traits. The first thing I notice is that a strong attachment develops by unknown factors and a feeling that something in our relationship mutually “clicks” when we are together. In reflecting upon character traits, however, the trait that is most important to me in a friend is loyalty. The loyalty of a friend means that the person is supportive in good times and bad times, in agreements and disagreements, and when we are together or apart.

The idea of loyalty can be difficult to define, but I believe that a friend should be supportive, even when the friend doesn’t actually approve of a particular decision or behavior. This is a situation that arose between me and my best friend, Mike. A few years ago, I felt that I needed to quit attending college for a year so that I could work to save money to help my mother, who had recently lost her job. Mike completely disagreed with my plan to take a leave of absence from school. He told me that it would be better for me to finish college and borrow money from relatives to help my mother.

Although we disagreed about this issue, Mike always remained loyal by talking honestly, respecting my feelings, and having a genuine concern about my predicament. Of course Mike has other great character traits, like a sense of humor, an easy-going manner, self-confidence, and integrity, but above all I trusted that he could be honest about his opinions because he was a loyal friend who was worried about my future.

I appreciated the points Mike suggested about not leaving school to work, but in the end I ultimately chose to leave school temporarily. Mike continued to remain a loyal friend and helped me to investigate new job possibilities, offered good advice about some employment leads, and offered a sense of understanding when a job hunt led to disappointments. This is the kind of loyalty that defines a true friendship. Mike was able to disagree with me, speak his mind, but continued to remain one of my best supporters even when we didn’t see each other very often. This kind of loyalty is means more to me than any of his other traits.

Analysis of Topic 1 Response

The opening paragraph clearly shows the writer’s main objective in the essay. The essay does what the topic calls for and describes one important character trait of a friend—loyalty. The writer defines loyalty in the second paragraph and provides the main supporting example of his or her experience with his or her friend, Mike. The subsequent paragraphs are well-developed and provide particular examples of why this trait is important to him or her. The writer has a command of the correct conventions of English (e.g., spelling, punctuation, and sentence structure) and provides a logical sequence of events throughout the essay. The concluding paragraph summarizes why loyalty is an important character trait (e.g., Mike was able to disagree with me . . . but continued to remain one of my best supporters).

Topic 2

The rapid rise of violence in our country, especially in schools and workplaces, has prompted some school districts to take assertive measures to protect students.

Assignment: In an essay to be read by an audience of educated adults, present an argument for whether you agree or disagree that schools have taken effective measures to make their schools safer.

Sample Response: A Well-Written Essay

Going to school, just a few short years ago, was much simpler when students’ physical safety was generally not considered life threatening. The random acts of school violence in the twenty-first century, including peer bullying, have had a negative emotional, physical, and social impact on students, teachers, and school administrators. Modern-day educators now play a critical role in developing procedures to prevent school violence; however, these new procedures have created a level of anxiety throughout the school system.

The overall goal in schools is to shield everyone and keep people safe from harm. It is an admirable effort, but I believe that many of the new standards and procedures have contributed to a level of emotional anxiety for many young people and their teachers. The emotional effects of vigilance have caused some students to have nightmares and become more distrustful. Students have reported experiencing visions of shooters behind every blind corner and every stranger has become a potential kidnapper. Parents have reported feeling apprehensive about sending their children to school and often insist on driving them to school, no matter how old, even though the school is just a few blocks away.

The constant rehearsal of “active-shooter-drills” and “lockdown drills” have likely contributed to students’ reduced attention span, lack of concentration, and increased vigilance. I believe this has become a problematic situation that interferes with classroom instruction. A generation of students now live in a world that is constantly being fueled by jolts of adrenaline, which increases stress and fear within the body and decreases their ability to stay focused on their classwork. I am reminded of a conversation that I recently had with my niece who is a graduating high school senior. After applying to college and being accepted to several schools, I asked her what her top priority was in choosing her school of choice. I was speechless when her answer was “safety.”

While there is violence in the world, I believe that it is time to reduce the anxiety-inducing language about the potential dangers and help students have a greater understanding that it is a statistically remote possibility to experience violence in the classroom. For example, most people don’t talk about the dangers of driving a car. If we imagined the graphic danger of a horrific car accident every time we got into a car, people might not even start the engine.

In conclusion, while it is certainly not wise to ignore the potential dangers of classroom violence, it seems particularly well-advised for schools to be mindful of the potential long-term psychological damage that is currently occurring in schools and attempt to lessen some of this damage with a balanced, realistic, world view.

Analysis of Topic 2 Response

The writer presents a well-structured essay that examines the internal psychology of students in schools who are faced with school violence. The main theme of the essay is presented in the last sentence of the first paragraph, when the writer introduces the idea that it is not only important to protect students, but also important to consider the psychological harm caused by over-vigilance.

In subsequent paragraphs, the writer examines supporting evidence that contributes to students’ stress and the need for presenting an objective world view. For example, the writer supports the main topic in paragraph three by providing specific examples (e.g., constant rehearsal of “active-shooter drills”) that can cause stress among students. Paragraph four offers a solution to the problem (e.g., help students have a greater understanding). The ideas are well-developed and well-organized throughout the essay. The writer demonstrates a command of English and uses smooth transitions to help readers maintain focus throughout the essay. The essay uses persuasion to describe the potential effects of stress (e.g., reduced attention span, lack of concentration . . .), and the writer uses a personal supporting example of his or her niece to confirm the essay’s overall viewpoint. In addition, the writer provides a suggestion to solve the problem in the final paragraph (e.g., [schools should provide] a balanced, realistic, world view).