Practice Test 1 - Practice Test 1

PSAT/NMSQT Prep with Practice Tests - Princeton Review 2021

Practice Test 1
Practice Test 1

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Reading Test


Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.


Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or graph).

Questions 1—9 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is excerpted from E.C. Bentley, Trent’s Last Case. First published in 1913, this novel tells the story of a detective who attempts to solve the murder of a wealthy financier.

Between what matters and what seems to matter, how should the world we know judge wisely? When the scheming, indomitable brain of Sigsbee Manderson was scattered by a shot from an unknown hand, that world lost nothing worth a single tear. It gained something memorable in a harsh reminder of the vanity of such wealth as this dead man had piled up—without making one loyal friend to mourn him, without doing an act that could help his memory to the least honour. But when the news of his end came, it seemed to those living in the great vortices of business as if the earth, too, shuddered under a blow. In all the lurid commercial history of his country there had been no figure that had so imposed itself upon the mind of the trading world. He had a niche apart in its temples. Financial giants, strong to direct and augment the forces of capital, and taking an approved toll in millions for their labour, had existed before; but in the case of Manderson there had been this singularity,

that a pale halo of piratical romance, a thing especially dear to the hearts of his countrymen, had remained incongruously about his head through the years when he stood in every eye as the unquestioned guardian of stability, the stamper-out of manipulated crises, the foe of the raiding chieftains that infest the borders of Wall Street. The fortune left by his grandfather, who had been one of those chieftains on the smaller scale of his day, had descended to him with accretion through his father, who during a long life had quietly continued to lend money and never had margined a stock. Manderson, who had at no time known what it was to be without large sums to his hand, should have been altogether of that newer American plutocracy which is steadied by the tradition and habit of great wealth. But it was not so. While his nurture and education had taught him European ideas of a rich man’s proper external circumstance; while they had rooted in him an instinct for quiet magnificence, the larger costliness which does not shriek of itself with a thousand tongues; there had been handed on to him nevertheless much of the Forty-Niner and financial buccaneer, his forbear. During that first period of his business career which had been called his early bad manner, he had been little more

than a gambler of genius, his hand against every man’s—an infant prodigy—who brought to the enthralling pursuit of speculation a brain better endowed than any opposed to it. At St. Helena it was laid down that war is a beautiful occupation; and so the young Manderson had found the multitudinous and complicated dog-fight of the Stock Exchange of New York. Then came his change. At his father’s death, when Manderson was thirty years old, some new revelation of the power and the glory of the god he served seemed to have come upon him. With the sudden, elastic adaptability of his nation he turned to steady labour in his father’s banking business, closing his ears to the sound of the battles of the Street. In a few years he came to control all the activity of the great firm whose unimpeached conservatism, safety, and financial weight lifted it like a cliff above the angry sea of the markets. All mistrust founded on the performances of his youth had vanished. He was quite plainly a different man. How the change came about none could with authority say, but there was a story of certain last words spoken by his father, whom alone he had respected and perhaps loved.

1.The main purpose of the passage is to

A)discuss the life of a powerful financier and explain the impact of his death.

B)reveal the motivations behind a sudden change in the life of a tycoon.

C)outline the reasons that a wealthy businessman made few friends.

D)argue that prosperity is more likely to result from hard work than from risky speculations.

2.Based on the information in the passage, Manderson was known chiefly for his

A)sharp business practices and harsh manner toward those he thought inferior.

B)vast wealth and willingness to lend money at low interest rates.

C)European habits and unusual good fortune as a gambler.

D)power and determination to protect the security of the financial sector.

3.Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)Lines 13—15 (“In all…world”)

B)Lines 23—26 (“he stood…Street”)

C)Lines 27—31 (“The fortune…stock”)

D)Lines 42—45 (“During…genius”)

4.The passage suggests which of the following about Manderson’s death?

A)Its cause was unknown, but news of it spread quickly throughout the financial world.

B)It served as a reminder that financial prosperity is not more valuable than health.

C)It had a greater impact on Manderson’s business connections than on his personal connections.

D)It occurred when Manderson was only thirty years old, at a time when many distrusted him.

5.Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)Lines 3—5 (“When…tear”)

B)Lines 5—12 (“It gained…blow”)

C)Lines 16—18 (“Financial…before”)

D)Lines 52—55 (“At his…him”)

6.As used in line 39, “quiet” most nearly means





7.In lines 48—51, the reference to St. Helena serves primarily to

A)introduce a comparison illustrating Manderson’s view of his work.

B)present a dilemma that perplexed Manderson’s coworkers.

C)describe a significant event in the history of the Stock Exchange.

D)suggest a potential career path dismissed by Manderson.

8.Which choice best describes Manderson’s “change” (line 52)?

A)Supporter of a business to rival taking over that business

B)Soldier at St. Helena to powerful business magnate

C)Disrespectful prodigy to trusted clerk

D)Clever speculator to steadfast banker

9.As used in line 55, “elastic” most nearly means





Questions 10—18 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

This passage is adapted from “A Third of All Food Never Gets Eaten. How Can We Fix This?” by Elizabeth Royte, NG Image Collection. Published 2016.

With governments fretting over how to feed more than nine billion people by 2050, a dominant narrative calls for increasing global food production by 70 to 100 percent. But agriculture already represents one of the greatest threats to planetary health. It is responsible for 70 percent of the planet’s freshwater withdrawals, 80 percent of the world’s tropical and subtropical deforestation, and 30 to 35 percent of human-caused greenhouse gas emissions. Meanwhile, nearly 800 million people worldwide suffer from hunger. But according to the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, we squander enough food—globally, 2.9 trillion pounds a year—to feed every one of them more than twice over. Where’s all that food—about a third of the planet’s production—going? In developing nations much is lost postharvest for lack of adequate storage facilities, good roads, and refrigeration. In comparison, developed nations

waste more food farther down the supply chain, when retailers order, serve, or display too much and when consumers ignore leftovers in the back of the fridge or toss perishables before they’ve expired. Wasting food takes an environmental toll as well. Producing food that no one eats—whether sausages or snickerdoodles—also squanders the water, fertilizer, pesticides, seeds, fuel, and land needed to grow it. The quantities aren’t trivial. Globally a year’s production of uneaten food guzzles as much water as the entire annual flow of the Volga, Europe’s most voluminous river. If food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world, after China and the U.S. On a planet of finite resources, with the expectation of at least two billion more residents by 2050, this profligacy, Tristram Stuart argues in his book Waste: Uncovering the Global Food Scandal, is obscene. Every year some 2.9 trillion pounds of food—about a third of all that the world produces—never get consumed. Along the supply chain fruits and vegetables are lost or wasted at higher rates than other foods. Easily bruised and vulnerable to temperature swings en route from farm to table, they’re also usually the first to

get tossed at home. Others have been making similar arguments for years, but reducing food waste has become a matter of international urgency. Some U.S. schools, where children dump up to 40 percent of their lunches into the trash, are setting up sharing tables, letting students serve themselves portions they know they’ll eat, allotting more time for lunch, and scheduling it after recess—all proven methods of boosting consumption. Countless businesses, such as grocery stores, restaurants, and cafeterias, have stepped forward to combat waste by quantifying how much edible food isn’t consumed, optimizing their purchasing, shrinking portion sizes, and beefing up efforts to move excess to charities. Stuart himself has made a specialty of investigating conditions farther up the supply chain, where supermarket standards and ordering practices lead to massive, but mostly hidden, dumps of edible food. By the end of 2015 the UN and the U.S. had pledged to halve food waste by 2030. The exact mechanisms of this ambitious goal haven’t been spelled out. But already countries and companies are devising and adopting standardized metrics to quantify waste. If the target is met, enough food could be saved to feed at least one billion people.

10.As used in line 2, “dominant” most nearly means





11.According to the passage, agriculture has led to an increase in the

A)flow of Europe’s drinkable river water.

B)cost of postharvest perishable goods.

C)strain placed on the environment.

D)number of people suffering from hunger.

12.Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)Lines 5—9 (“It is…emissions”)

B)Lines 17—19 (“In developing…refrigeration”)

C)Lines 29—31 (“Globally a…river”)

D)Lines 32—34 (“If food…U.S.”)

13.The author indicates that the amount of food wasted annually across the globe

A)has steadily decreased since industrialization.

B)could feed every starving person in the world.

C)is the leading cause of malnutrition worldwide.

D)is not given sufficient attention.

14.Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)Lines 10—11 (“Meanwhile…hunger”)

B)Lines 11—14 (“But according…over”)

C)Lines 63—64 (“By the…2030”)

D)Lines 65—67 (“But already…waste”)

15.In lines 25—26, the author includes the phrase “whether sausages or snickerdoodles” in order to

A)distinguish between the perceived values of food groups.

B)identify the food waste that environmentalists object to most strongly.

C)caution her readers against consuming particularly wasteful foods.

D)highlight the gravity of the overall effects of food waste.

16.As used in line 38, “obscene” most nearly means





17.Which idea is supported by both the passage and the information in figure 1?

A)Retail markets and consumers are responsible for a greater percentage of food waste in developed nations than in developing nations.

B)In developed nations, a lack of adequate food storage is responsible for the majority of postproduction food waste.

C)Each year, developed and developing nations account for roughly the same amount of food waste.

D)A smaller percentage of food is lost during production and processing in developing nations than in developed nations.

18.Figure 2 most directly supports which statement from the passage?

A)Lines 1—4 (“With governments…percent”)

B)Lines 19—23 (“In comparison…expired”)

C)Lines 41—45 (“Along the…home”)

D)Lines 53—58 (“Countless…charities”)

Questions 19—28 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

This passage is adapted from “The Ability to Discriminate Paintings Found in Mice,” a 2013 press release by Keio University

Keio University Professor Emeritus Shigeru Watanabe has reported the ability to discriminate paintings in pigeons and Java Sparrows in the past, but his latest experiments have identified that this same ability exists in mice. He began by examining if the mice stayed longer in front of paintings by Kandinsky or Mondrian. He found that most mice did not display any discrepancy in staying time (painting preference). They did not show a preference for paintings when shown Renoir vs. Picasso, either. However, when mice were injected with morphine while viewing one painting and injected with saline solution when viewing the other, the mice clearly began to stay for longer periods near the paintings associated with morphine injection. In the second experiment, mice were able to discriminate between pictures after training them to touch one of the pictures displayed on a touch screen in order to receive milk. Mice have been generally considered non-visual animals, but this research indicates that mice are

capable of higher-order visual perception. Two types of apparatuses were used for the experiments. The first was an apparatus with three compartments. An iPod was installed on either side of the apparatus, and slide shows of pictures of paintings were shown in sequence. Sensors recorded the staying time of mice in the compartments with their respective paintings. Next, mice were confined in one of the compartments with a painting immediately after receiving an injection of morphine (3mg/kg). During this confinement, paintings were displayed on the iPod. The next day, mice received saline injections and were confined in another compartment and shown different paintings. After this procedure repeating three times, mice were allowed to walk freely around the apparatus without any injection. As mice know that morphine causes pleasure, they should stay longer near the painting associated with the morphine injection if able to discriminate between paintings (Experiment 1). The second apparatus was a touch screen on which a pair of paintings was displayed. If the mice touched one of the paintings—one of Kandinsky’s paintings, for example—the mice would be rewarded with milk. If they touched the other painting (Mondrian’s painting,

in this case), they would not receive milk. If mice are capable of discrimination, they should touch the painting associated with the milk reward (Experiment 2). The first experiment, in which a slide show program on the iPod displayed 10 paintings each of Kandinsky and Mondrian to the mice, did not indicate a longer staying time for either artist’s paintings. Analysis of individual mice revealed only one mouse out of the twenty stayed longer near Kandinsky’s paintings. The mice did not indicate a preference for Picasso or Renoir either, although one mouse out of the twelve stayed longer near Renoir’s painting. In the experiment which used morphine (conditioning in Experiment 1), mice stayed longer at the painting shown to them after the morphine injection for both the Kandinsky/Mondrian and Picasso/Renoir pairs. In short, they were able to discriminate between the paintings. When mice were shown a number of the 10 paintings after the morphine injection (e.g. five Kandinsky paintings), they recorded a longer staying time with the remaining paintings of the same artist, even when those paintings had not previously been shown to them (e.g. the five remaining Kandinsky paintings). This is a phenomenon called “generalization” and indicates that the mice were able

to categorize a certain style of painting into a group. In the touch screen experiment (Experiment 2), once mice could correctly discriminate the pairs of Kandinsky and Mondrian paintings, they were trained with different pairs. After repeating this four times, mice were able to correctly choose the artist’s painting in pairs of paintings never shown to them around 80% of the time. However, when the paintings were switched to Picasso-Renoir pairs, the mice were unable to choose correctly. This means that the mice were discriminating or categorizing a painting style as a single group. Among mammals, humans place importance on their sense of sight. Birds generally have excellent vision. Mice have excellent senses of smell and hearing, but it has been thought that they are non-visual animals. This is understandable considering the fact that mice are nocturnal and burrowing creatures. This experiment demonstrates that mice have much better visual perception abilities than previously thought. Additionally, it means that perception of complex visual stimuli like paintings extend to non-human animals.

19.Which choice best reflects the overall structure of the passage?

A)An overview of an observed behavior is followed by two hypotheses that attempt to explain the behavior.

B)A discussion of a perceived scientific truth is followed by an alternative model.

C)The results of two experiments are followed by a description of the two experiments.

D)An outcome of a study is followed by an extension of the outcome to another field.

20.As used in line 12, “solution” most nearly means





21.Which choice is an underlying assumption Professor Watanabe makes regarding “staying time?”

A)If mice stay longer with a painting, then it must be due to an association with the reward used.

B)If mice are given rewards, they will have better vision and therefore be better equipped to differentiate between paintings.

C)If mice spend more time viewing the paintings they saw when receiving a reward, then they are experiencing the same pleasure derived from the reward.

D)If mice stay with a painting for as long as pigeons and Java Sparrows, then the mice have the ability to discriminate between paintings.

22.Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)Lines 1—5 (“Keio…in mice”)

B)Lines 18—20 (“Mice have…perception”)

C)Lines 33—35 (“After this…injection”)

D)Lines 35—38 (“As mice…paintings”)

23.As used in line 46, “discrimination” most nearly means





24.It can reasonably be inferred that Professor Watanabe showed the paintings to the mice prior to the conditioning experiments in order to

A)prove that the staying times increased by 80%.

B)familiarize them with the artists.

C)heighten their sense of anticipation for rewards.

D)establish a lack of preference without training.

25.Which choice best supports the claim that mice are more visually adept than they were conventionally believed to be?

A)Lines 54—57 (“The mice…painting”)

B)Lines 77—79 (“However…correctly”)

C)Lines 83—85 (“Mice have…animals”)

D)Lines 86—88 (“This…thought”)

26.The primary purpose of the final paragraph (lines 81—90) is to

A)explain the source of an error.

B)justify an experiment’s methods.

C)discuss implications of a study’s results.

D)suggest a topic for further research.

27.What main purpose does the figure serve in relation to the passage as a whole?

A)It resolves the conflicting conclusions of the various experiments in the passage.

B)It quantifies results of the first experiment discussed in the passage.

C)It offers a possible source of error that casts doubt on Professor Watanabe’s conclusions.

D)It suggests a different interpretation than that presented in the passage.

28.Based on information in the passage and in the figure, the mice, in general,

A)showed an ability to generalize from paintings to art of other media by the same artist.

B)had a greater appreciation for Picasso than Renoir before the conditioning.

C)exhibited increased staying times following conditioning with morphine.

D)were influenced less by the milk reward than by the morphine reward.

Questions 29—38 are based on the following passage.

This passage is adapted from The Federalist Papers, written by Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison in 1788. In this piece, John Jay discusses maintaining the United States as a single nation or dividing the country into a collection of small independent sovereignties.

To the People of the State of New York: When the people of America reflect that they are now called upon to decide a question, which, in its consequences, must prove one of the most important that ever engaged their attention, the propriety of their taking a very comprehensive, as well as a very serious, view of it, will be evident. Nothing is more certain than the indispensable necessity of government, and it is equally undeniable, that whenever and however it is instituted, the people must cede to it some of their natural rights in order to vest it with requisite powers. It is well worthy of consideration therefore, whether it would conduce more to the interest of the people of America that they should, to all general purposes, be one nation, under one federal government, or that they should divide themselves into separate confederacies, and give to the head of each the same kind of powers which they are advised to place in one national government.

It has until lately been a received and uncontradicted opinion that the prosperity of the people of America depended on their continuing firmly united, and the wishes, prayers, and efforts of our best and wisest citizens have been constantly directed to that object. But politicians now appear, who insist that this opinion is erroneous, and that instead of looking for safety and happiness in union, we ought to seek it in a division of the States into distinct confederacies or sovereignties. However extraordinary this new doctrine may appear, it nevertheless has its advocates; and certain characters who were much opposed to it formerly, are at present of the number. Whatever may be the arguments or inducements which have wrought this change in the sentiments and declarations of these gentlemen, it certainly would not be wise in the people at large to adopt these new political tenets without being fully convinced that they are founded in truth and sound policy. It has often given me pleasure to observe that 40 independent America was not composed of detached and distant territories, but that one connected, fertile, wide-spreading country was the portion of our western sons of liberty. Providence has in a particular manner blessed it with a variety of soils and productions, and

watered it with innumerable streams, for the delight and accommodation of its inhabitants. A succession of navigable waters forms a kind of chain round its borders, as if to bind it together; while the most noble rivers in the world, running at convenient distances, present them with highways for the easy communication of friendly aids, and the mutual transportation and exchange of their various commodities. With equal pleasure I have as often taken notice that Providence has been pleased to give this one connected country to one united people—a people descended from the same ancestors, speaking the same language, professing the same religion, attached to the same principles of government, very similar in their manners and customs, and who, by their joint counsels, arms, and efforts, fighting side by side throughout a long and bloody war, have nobly established general liberty and independence. This country and this people seem to have been made for each other, and it appears as if it was the design of Providence, that an inheritance so proper and convenient for a band of brethren, united to each other by the strongest ties, should never be split into a number of unsocial, jealous, and alien sovereignties.

29.The position that Jay takes in this essay can best be described as that of

A)an impartial onlooker pointing out both sides of an issue.

B)a leader arguing for a particular outcome.

C)an intellectual studying a historical decision.

D)a spokesperson seeking a reasonable compromise.

30.As used in line 12, “vest” most nearly means





31.According to Jay, which of the following questions about the American political system arose shortly before the passage was written?

A)Whether it is truly necessary for the people to give up some of their rights to the government

B)Whether it is better for America to be governed as one nation or for each state to be governed independently

C)Whether it is best to give all authority to the federal government or to reserve some powers for the states

D)Whether the American people should share one common language and religion

32.Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)Lines 8—12 (“Nothing…powers”)

B)Lines 25—28 (“But politicians…sovereignties”)

C)Lines 43—46 (“Providence…inhabitants”)

D)Lines 53—62 (“With equal…independence”)

33.Jay indicates that those who choose to support dividing the country into separate confederacies

A)are contradicting the wishes, prayers, and efforts of the majority of its citizens.

B)value independence over safety and happiness.

C)should not do so without first examining the issue thoroughly.

D)are threatening the prosperity of the nation by encouraging political turmoil.

34.Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)Lines 20—22 (“It has…united”)

B)Lines 29—32 (“However…number”)

C)Lines 32—38 (“Whatever…policy”)

D)Lines 39—43 (“It has…liberty”)

35.In lines 39—43, Jay makes a distinction between

A)self-reliance and liberty.

B)secluded provinces and a unified domain.

C)deserted marketplaces and lush farmland.

D)division and independence.

36.In the context of the passage as a whole, Jay’s references to “innumerable streams” (line 45), “navigable waters” (line 47), and “noble rivers” (line 49) primarily serve to

A)endorse the protection of natural resources.

B)inspire an adventurous spirit.

C)summarize a complicated position.

D)support an argument through comparison.

37.In saying “with equal pleasure” (line 53), Jay suggests that he

A)finds the unity among the country’s people as satisfying as the connections in the country’s geography.

B)would be just as happy to have the states unified as he would to have them divided.

C)would enjoy meeting new people if he had the opportunity to travel more.

D)would prefer traveling by water as much as he would prefer traveling by land.

38.The list in lines 55—59 (“a people…customs”) primarily serves to

A)outline a method that Jay has endorsed.

B)summarize the points that Jay has dismissed.

C)provide support for a claim Jay has made.

D)restate the key issues Jay’s audience must settle.

Questions 39—47 are based on the following passages.

Passage 1 is adapted from “Tardigrades become first animals to survive vacuum of space” by Ed Yong © 2016. Passage 2 is adapted from “These ’Indestructible’ Animals Would Survive a Planet-Wide Apocalypse” by Casey Smith, NG Image Collection. Published 2018.

Passage 1

In September last year, a team of scientists launched a squad of tiny animals into space aboard a Russian satellite. Once in orbit, the creatures were shunted into ventilated containers that exposed them to the vacuum of space. In this final frontier, they had no air and they were subjected to extreme dehydration, freezing temperatures, weightlessness and lashings of both cosmic and solar radiation. It’s hard to imagine a more inhospitable environment for life but not only did the critters survive, they managed to reproduce on their return to Earth. Meet the planet’s toughest animals — the tardigrades. Tardigrades are small aquatic invertebrates that are also known as “water bears”, after their impossibly cute shuffling walk. They also happen to be nigh-invincible and can tolerate extreme environments that would kill almost any other animal. They can take temperatures close to absolute zero, punishing doses of radiation and prolonged periods of drought. And now, they have become the only animals to have ever survived the raw vacuum of space.

Their stellar adventure began with Ingemar Jonsson from Kristianstad University, who really wanted to test the limits of their resilience. To that end, he launched adults from two species (Richtersius coronifer and Milnesium tardigradum) into space aboard the FOTON-M3 spacecraft, as part of a mission amusingly known as TARDIS (Tardigrades In Space). The tardinauts spent ten days in low Earth orbit, about 270km above sea level. The tardigrades were sent into orbit in a dry, dormant state called a “tun” and it’s this dessicated form that is the key to their extraordinary levels of endurance. By replacing almost all of the water in their bodies with a sugar called trehalose, they can escape many of the things that would otherwise kill them. Jonsson says, “Environmental agents that rely on water or the respiratory system don’t work. You can put a dry tardigrade in pure alcohol and expose them to poisonous gases without killing them.” The ability to dry out completely is an adaptation to the tardigrades’ precarious environment — damp pools or patches of water on moss or lichen that can easily evaporate. They have evolved to cope with sporadic drought and can stay dormant for years. All it takes to revive them is a drop of water, and that’s exactly what happened when the TARDIS astronauts returned to Earth.

Passage 2

The world’s most robust animals may very well survive until the sun stops shining. Tardigrades are tiny water-dwelling creatures famed for their resiliency. The eight-legged invertebrates can survive for up to 30 years without food or water and can endure wild temperature extremes, radiation exposure, and even the vacuum of space. At a minimum, all of Earth’s oceans would have to boil away to completely wipe out all life on the planet. Although tardigrades are only known to survive high temperatures when dry—and those species living in the sea would likely die before the waters boiled—tardigrades are still expected to avoid extinction until our sun swells up and becomes a red giant roughly six billion years from now, according to researchers who investigated the effects of various doomsday scenarios, and who described the results in the journal Scientific Reports. Astrophysical events such as asteroid strikes have been fingered as the causes of past mass extinctions on Earth. Such violent cataclysms could easily wipe out humans: We belong to a sensitive species, and subtle

changes in the environment impact us dramatically, notes study co-author Rafael Alves Batista of the University of Oxford. Intrigued by the resilience of tardigrades, Alves Batista and his colleagues wanted to explore the effects of potential astrophysical catastrophes on more than just human life. There are asteroids out there that do pose collision risks and are large enough to trigger an “impact winter,” blotting out sunlight and causing temperatures to drop. This would be catastrophic for many life-forms on the surface, but tardigrades would have a refuge. “Tardigrades can live around volcanic vents at the bottom of the ocean, which means they have a huge shield against the kind of events that would be catastrophic for humans,” Sloan says. In essence, the researchers say, only the death of the sun will ultimately lead to the total extinction of life on Earth, including tardigrades. Tardigrades are as close to indestructible as it gets on Earth,” Alves Batista says, “but it’s possible that there are other resilient species examples elsewhere in the universe.”

39.In Passage 1, which choice provides the best support for the author’s statement that space is an “inhospitable environment for life”?

A)Lines 3—5 (“Once in…space”)

B)Lines 5—8 (“In this…radiation”)

C)Lines 18—19 (“And now…space”)

D)Lines 26—28 (“The tardinauts…level”)

40.As used in line 15, “tolerate” most nearly means





41.The author of Passage 1 indicates that tardigrades can survive in hostile environments due to which unique trait?

A)Shuffling walk

B)Tolerance for famine

C)Small size

D)Ability to replace water with sugar

42.Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A)Lines 1—3 (“In September…satellite”)

B)Lines 12—16 (“Tardigrades…animal”)

C)Lines 31—34 (“By replacing…them”)

D)Lines 42—44 (“All it…Earth”)

43.As used in line 45, “robust” most nearly means





44.A student claimed that tardigrades would likely face extinction before humans. Would the author of Passage 2 most likely agree with the student’s claim?

A)Yes, because the author states that tardigrades are nearly indestructible and can go long periods without food or water.

B)Yes, because the author states that tardigrades are vulnerable to both asteroid impacts and the death of the sun.

C)No, because the author states that tardigrades may be protected from cataclysmic events that would be highly destructive for humans.

D)No, because the author states that tardigrades are vulnerable to astrophysical events such as asteroid strikes.

45.The main purpose of both Passage 1 and Passage 2 is to

A)examine the methods of testing the resiliency of invertebrates in space.

B)claim that invertebrates living in water are less able to withstand extreme environments.

C)describe the high level of resiliency of a particular invertebrate.

D)imagine invertebrates in different catastrophic scenarios.

46.Based on the information provided in Passage 2, the “water bears” referred to in line 13

A)belong to the subphylum of vertebrates.

B)are related to tuns.

C)are made of trehalose.

D)have eight legs.

47.Based on Passages 1 and 2, which of the following is most likely a natural habitat of the “water-dwelling creatures” (line 47)?

A)Volcanic lava domes

B)Vacuum of space

C)Water pipes in homes

D)Patches of lichen


If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.

Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Writing and Language Test


Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.


Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” Option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Questions 1—11 are based on the following passage.

The Nobel Prize and the School of…

The Nobel Prize has been awarded in a variety of categories since 1901. There aren’t many 1 exceptions on the list. As one would expect, the early prizes were given mostly to Americans and 2 people who hailed from Europe, but the committee has since become more international. The winners of the prizes have aged alongside increasing life expectancy. In the early days, the average winner of the Nobel Prize in Physics was in 3 their early 50s. Nowadays it’s fairly surprising to see a winner in any category who is younger than 60.






B)those of European descent,

C)people from Europe,




C)his or her


4 The winners in most categories come from the elite research institutions in the United States and abroad: Harvard, MIT, Stanford, Caltech, Cambridge, Columbia, and Berkeley. Not, however, the winners of the Nobel Prize in Literature. These winners share an average age (64) and geographical diversity with those in other 5 categories, though they have not attended the same schools—not by a long shot. Eugene O’Neill, one of the first American laureates, did spend one year at Princeton, but he did not finish, completing the “education” that would inspire his great works while working as a seaman and an active member of the Marine Transport Workers Union. The most 6 recent prize went to Toni Morrison earned her undergraduate degree at Howard University in Washington, D.C

4.Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph?

A)Old as they are, nevertheless, winners in all categories tend to be affiliated with the same universities.

B)One surprise in the list of Nobel Prize winners, however, has to do with the educational backgrounds of some winners.

C)Most of the best research is done by college students and their professors.

D)It will shock no one that all Nobel prize winners are highly intelligent in one way or another.


B)categories; though

C)categories however

D)categories. Though


B)choice in literature was Toni Morrison

C)recent winner, whose name was Toni Morrison,

D)recent recipient of the prize, Toni Morrison,

[1] This trend should remind us that creativity can strike anywhere, and one of the Nobel committee’s great merits is that that 7 they have been willing to identify great talent outside of the typical places. [2] Work in economics, medicine, or the sciences 8 requires a vibrant, collaborative atmosphere, with the best minds in the field working together toward solutions. [3] The elite universities of the world provide just such an atmosphere. [4] Literary labor requires the mind and circumstances of a great writer, plus a healthy dose of imagination and courage. [5] While the other fields celebrate great 9 accomplishments, discoveries, and new findings, the Nobel Prize in Literature celebrates great individual minds, those that contain all there is to know and more. [6] Work in literature, however, needs no such place. 10

These trends show that great thinkers and scholars do not live only at the big research universities. Anyone with an open mind can do great things, 11 and it’s not unreasonable to expect that you’d find the most open minds at the best schools. The trends among Nobel laureates in literature teach us much the same lesson that literature itself does. There is an endless supply of wonder in our infinitely diverse world, and those with the willingness to see it will always be rewarded.


B)we are

C)it has

D)they might’ve



C)do require

D)has required


B)accomplishments, findings, and new discoveries

C)accomplishments and finding discoveries

D)accomplishments and new discoveries

10.For the sake of the logic and coherence of this paragraph, sentence 6 should be placed

A)where it is now.

B)after sentence 2.

C)after sentence 3.

D)after sentence 4.

11.Which choice would most effectively support the assertion made in this sentence and paragraph as a whole?


B)whether that’s in a high-end graduate program, a community college, or the workforce.

C)although here, too, the Literature laureates are an exception.

D)but obviously an author of fiction needs to have a very open mind to begin with.

Questions 12—22 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

I’d Rather Be With An Animal

Many children dream of being veterinarians. Working all day with animals just like one’s dog, cat, 12 fish or horse seems, like a dream come true. For some reason, though, kids seem to grow out of this fantasy as they get older, with 13 fewer than 3,000 veterinary-school graduates each year in the United States. It may be time, however, to bring the dream back: the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics predicts that, between 2010 and 2020, 14 the U.S. economy will see some slow growth. The need for veterinary technicians is predicted to grow even more quickly, 15 although the data show that other professions will grow even more quickly.


B)fish, or, horse seems

C)fish, or horse seems

D)fish or, horse seems


B)less than

C)fewer then

D)less then

14.Which of the following true statements best supports the statement made earlier in this sentence?


B)many children will be born in the United States.

C)some veterinarians will retire.

D)the veterinary profession will grow by 36 percent.

15.Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the graph?


B)at over three times the rate of all occupations in the United States.

C)but being a health technician has equally positive job prospects.

D)largely because these positions can be filled by those who have not gone to veterinary school.

For many years, veterinarians have provided a series of basic services for household 16 pets. From basic check-ups and shots to neutering and defanging. Today, however, pets have a longer life expectancy than in the past, and 17 they are required to perform more and more procedures involving animal cancers, skin abscesses, and torn ligaments and cartilage. Medical expenses are now a significant factor in the cost of pet ownership, and companies offering Veterinary Pet Insurance (VPI) are sprouting up all over the country.

[1] If this seems to resemble medical care for humans, it’s not mere coincidence. [2] In fact, the word “owners” may itself be a misnomer: 18 some pets are shared between friends. [3] There are many cultural factors leading to this increase in attention and intimacy. [4] The main one may be that as young men and women are getting married and starting families later in life, they are more likely to own pets as new college graduates and young professionals. [5] For many pet owners, dogs and cats are more “human” than ever before. 19



C)pets; from

D)pets from,




D)all of them

18.Which choice best emphasizes that many pet owners consider their pets to be more human than animal?


B)every little boy and girl dreams of getting a puppy for Christmas.

C)many now self-identify as pet “parents.”

D)pets are a great way to teach children about death.

19.For the sake of the cohesion of this paragraph, sentence 5 should be placed

A)where it is now.

B)after sentence 1.

C)after sentence 2.

D)after sentence 3.

As pets continue to take on a new symbolic importance, the need for veterinary specialization is increasing. There is a huge 20 demand, for instance, for the work of specialists in veterinary dentistry and animal behaviorism as these fields become better understood. In the latter particularly, there is an obvious correlation between the humanity of pets and the perceived complexity of 21 their minds and of the way they think. There have also been significant increases in the very “human” procedures of hip replacements, blood transfusions, and organ transplants.

Veterinary advocates have been quick to point out that increases in animal health correlate directly with increases in human health. Given the increase in people living alone and the decrease in the average number of children per family, an animal’s companionship can provide 22 stuff that is often attributed to the traditional nuclear family. The grandeur of childhood dreams may not be so unreasonable after all: as the veterinary profession grows, veterinary science will increasingly become a part of how we understand the human experience.


B)demand for instance

C)demand for, instance,

D)demand for instance,


B)the way they think about things.

C)what they mind.

D)their minds.


B)one of the things


D)the stability

Questions 23—33 are based on the following passage.

Veterans in School

23 It may seem commonplace today for many people to go to college, this is a relatively recent development. For much of American history, a university education was reserved only for the very wealthy, but all of that changed with the G.I. Bill.

The Servicemen’s Readjustment Act, the G.I. Bill’s official name, was signed into law in 1944. More than twenty years earlier, 24 after the conclusion of World War I, the veterans of the bloodiest war on record were more or less forgotten by the U.S. government. Many of them were given little more than a $60 allowance and a train ticket home. While 25 they’re was some talk of military bonuses, those bonuses were not easily obtained. As a result, 26 a group of 1932 veterans marched into Washington to achieve its bonus demands. The march ended bitterly: no bonuses were paid, and many protesters were chased off by armed military.


B)Because it

C)While it

D)Really, it

24.Which of the following true choices provides the information most consistent with the rest of the sentence?


B)so that would be around 1924,

C)two decades into the twentieth century,

D)when the G.I. Bill hadn’t been written yet,






B)Washington invited the bonus veterans to march in 1932 on it.

C)in 1932, a group of veterans marched on Washington to demand the bonuses.

D)a group of veterans planned to march on 1932 bonuses for Washington.

As World War II neared its end, though, the U.S. government sought to avoid another such standoff. Indeed, for many, the goal was less idealistic: the 27 tremendous unemployment, among World War I veterans, was seen as accelerating the economic collapse of the Great Depression. 28 Hoping to avoid either or both of these catastrophes, Congress passed the Servicemen’s Readjustment Act, which included provisions for education, home loans, and unemployment insurance.


B)tremendous unemployment among World War I veterans

C)tremendous, unemployment among, World War I veterans

D)tremendous unemployment among World War I veterans,

28.Which of the following choices best agrees with the ideas discussed in this paragraph?


B)In 1944, a year before World War II ended officially,

C)Almost three years after the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor,

D)Perhaps for other reasons that historians don’t understand,

One of the perhaps unintended consequences 29 in university education was a revolution in the United States. In 1947, veterans on the G.I. Bill accounted for 49 percent of college admissions. By 1956, of the 16 million World War II veterans, nearly half had used the G.I. Bill for some kind of training. Therefore, by the early 1960s, college training 30 had changed drastically. For the first time in American history, college was truly democratic: it was not limited to the very wealthy. Instead, 31 college could be a new springboard for the upwardly mobile. Interestingly, in this same span, the least utilized of all benefits was that of unemployment: while veterans came in droves to attend colleges and get help financing their homes, very few used the unemployment subsidy.

32 Some years are better for the G.I. Bill than others. In 2008, for instance, the bill was expanded to include more support for servicemen and women, including the ability to transfer unused benefits to husbands, wives, and children. We may not expect a piece of wartime legislation to have been so 33 good, but the G.I. Bill changed the face of education as we know it, and we feel its effects all around us.

29.The best placement for the underlined portion would be

A)where it is now.

B)at the beginning of the sentence (adjusting punctuation and capitalization accordingly).

C)after the word was.

D)after the word revolution.




D)would change

31.Which of the following choices best supports the idea presented in the previous sentence?


B)most of the beneficiaries were still pretty wealthy.

C)the criteria for selection were not based on income.

D)few could hope to reach the economic status of earlier college graduates.

32.Which of the following best introduces the topic of this paragraph?


B)The benefits of the bill continue to this day.

C)G.I.s can do many things with their degrees.

D)The home subsidy is an underappreciated part of the bill.





Questions 34—44 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

The Ecological Recovery of Detroit

The borderland between the United States and Canada was 34 hotly contested in its early history. Fighting between the English, the French, the Native Americans, and the newly independent Americans made the region one of the most volatile of the early 1800s. While many humans and animals have influenced the history of the region, one 35 animals influence, the beavers, has been as significant as it is overlooked. Although Michigan eventually became a powerhouse in the later part of the Industrial Revolution, it was initially attractive to settlers who wanted to cash in on the fur trade, and beaver pelts were some of the hottest commodities.

The city of Detroit was founded on le détroit, 36 which is where the name obviously comes from. Antoine Laumet de la Mothe, sieur de Cadillac, and his fellow settlers saw this “détroit” as the perfect place to build a fort to protect their fur interests. Their plans were successful, and within a very short 37 span. Furs had become the dominant trade items in the region. By the mid-1700s, after the British had seized control of the region, beaver skins had become almost universally accepted as currency, and the Hudson Bay Company issued beaver-shaped tokens that were valued at one skin each.

34.Which of the following most effectively supports the ideas in this paragraph?


B)bitterly cold

C)primarily enforested

D)boldly international


B)animal influence, the beaver,

C)animals’ influence, the beaver’s,

D)animal’s influence, the beaver’s,

36.Which of the following true statements best clarifies the information given in the first part of this sentence?


B)the “strait” of the river connecting Lake St. Clair to Lake Erie.

C)on the borderland between southern Canada and the northern United States.

D)just across the river from modern-day Windsor, Ontario.


B)span; furs

C)span, furs

D)span, but furs

38 Finite resources built the unfortunate universal popularity of it. For instance, beaver skins were popular in the stylish clothes of the day, particularly hats. Although silks had become more popular than animal skins in the early 1800s, by that time the beaver had been hunted to the point that 39 it was nearly eliminated from the region altogether. In addition, the region around Detroit had grown in population, and much of the beaver habitat around the rivers had been replaced by homes and would soon be replaced by factories. 40 Then, in the twentieth century, Detroit became the “Motor City,” the main producer of automobiles in the United States, certainly not a place where wildlife could 41 think about living anymore.


B)The unfortunate resources were also universally finite in popularity.

C)Unfortunately, this universal popularity was built on finite resources.

D)Universal popularity came with the unfortunate finitude of resources.



C)they were

D)one was

40.The writer is considering deleting the phrase “by factories” from the previous sentence and adjusting the punctuation accordingly. Should the phrase be kept or deleted?

A)Kept, because it helps to emphasize that the auto industry is largely to blame for the extinction of the beaver.

B)Kept, because it clarifies what in addition to houses has replaced the beaver habitat.

C)Deleted, because it repeats information given earlier in the sentence.

D)Deleted, because it paints an unnecessarily negative portrait of the Industrial Revolution in Detroit.


B)migrate to with the seasons.

C)be enjoyed by all.

D)continue to thrive.

Detroit’s population peaked in the 1950s, but since the 1960s, the auto industry and population have declined precipitately. 42 Between 1990 and 2010 alone, the population of Detroit was reduced by over half. Large parts of the city are now abandoned, and thousands of abandoned houses and lots are overgrown with nature, earning them the title “urban prairies.” Although Detroit 43 may have long been seen as a hotbed of urban blight, it is now becoming a place of new beginnings. Where one might see urban decay, for instance, many have come to see a resurgence of the wilderness, emblematized by, of all things, the return of the beaver. 44 Unlike other cities, parts of Detroit, it seems, may be returning to something like a “natural state.” Josh Hartig, with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, has called the renaturalization of the area “one of the most dramatic ecological recovery stories in North America.”

42.Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the graph?


B)Throughout the twentieth century,

C)Between 1890 and 1950,

D)From 1950 to 2010,


B)may of

C)might of

D)would have


B)As is not the case in other cities,

C)Dissimilar to some parts,

D)Different from other cities,


If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.

Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Math Test — No Calculator


Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.


For questions 1—13, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 14—17, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions before question 14 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.


1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.

2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.

3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.

4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x) is a real number.


The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.

The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

1.Which of the following are the solutions to the equation 3x2 − 48 = 0?

A)− and

B)−4 and 4

C)− and

D)−16 and 16

2.At an organic farm, a 2.6 square kilometer plot of soybeans is being harvested. If the farm workers can harvest 23 hectares a day, which of the following functions can be used to estimate how many hectares, H(d), will remain to be harvested after d days?

(Note: 100 hectares = 1 square kilometer)

A)H(d) = 2.6 − 0.23d

B)H(d) = 2.6 − 23d

C)H(d) = 260 − 23d

D)H(d) = 2,300 − 260d

3.What is the value of x in the equation above?

A) 8

B) 9



4.Which of the following values of y would make the above inequality true?



C) 0

D) 3

5.Which of the following is equivalent to the expression ab2 − 3ab + 2b − 6?

A)(a + 2)(b − 3)

B)(ab + 2)(b − 3)

C)b(a + 3)(b − 3)

D)b(ab − 3a) + 2(b − 6)

6.The function f is shown in the xy-plane above. Which of the following could be f(x)?

A)f(x) = x(x + 2)

B)f(x) = x(x − 2)

C)f(x) = x(x + 2)2

D)f(x) = x(x − 2)2

7.Line a is given by the equation y = 2x − 3. Which of the following equations represents a line that intersects line a in the xy-plane at the point ?

A)4x − 3y = 4

B)2x + 3y = 5

C)y − 2x = 1


8.Which of the following expressions is equivalent to (x + 2)(x − 5) − 18?

A)(x − 4)(x + 7)

B)x2 − 3x − 8

C)x2 − 3x − 25

D)(x − 7)(x + 4)

9.For all y > 3, which of the following is equivalent to the expression above?

A)3 − y



D)2y2 + 6y

h(x) = 9 − |x − 3|

10.In the equation above, h(n) = h(−3). Which of the following could be the value of n?


B) 3

C) 9


C = 0.08(Bx)

11.A new county regulation requires that a school system spend a certain amount of its discretionary budget each month on curriculum-based activities and a certain percentage of the remainder on after-school clubs. The equation above gives the amount, C dollars, that a school must spend on after-school clubs based on B dollars, the discretionary budget that month, and x dollars, the amount that must be spent on curriculum-based activities. If a school with a monthly discretionary budget of $9,000 must spend $320 on after-school clubs, what is the school required to spend on curriculum-based activities?





P = 2,500 + 135x

12.The population of County Y, in thousands, can be modeled by the above equation, in which x represents the number of years since the 2010 census. What does the number 135 represent in this equation?

A)Every year the population of County Y increases by 135 people.

B)Every 135 years that passes, the population of County Y increases by 2,500 people.

C)Every 135 years that passes, the population of County Y increases by 250,000 people.

D)Every year the population of County Y increases by 135,000 people.

13.If the expression above is true for all values of x where x > 0, what is the value of b?






For questions 14—17, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.

1. Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly.

2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.

3. No question has a negative answer.

4. Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such cases, grid only one answer.

5. Mixed numbers such as must be gridded as 3.5 or 7/2. (If is entered into the grid, it will be interpreted as , not as .)

6. Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.

4s + 2t = 7

3s − 2t = 14

14.In the system of equations above, what is the value of s?

15.In the figure above, lines m and n cross the lines containing segments RT and SU such that angle RSV is congruent to angle TUV. If angle UVT is a right angle, and angle TUV measures 65°, what is the value of x? (Disregard the degree sign when gridding your answer.)

16.A theater sells student tickets to a play for $24 and regular admission tickets for $36. If the theater sells out the 100-seat theater for opening night and has total ticket sales of $3,144, how many of the tickets sold were student tickets?

17.If x ≠ 0 and 5x = 7y, what is the value of ?


If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.

Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Math Test — Calculator


Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.


For questions 1—27, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 28—31, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions before question 28 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.


1. The use of a calculator is permitted.

2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.

3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.

4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x) is a real number.


The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2π.

The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

1.Which of the following expressions is equivalent to 2(x − 5) + 3?

A)2x − 7

B)2x − 2

C)5x − 2

D)10x + 3

2.A small glass tube used in a scientific lab can hold no more than 8.50 milliliters of liquid needed for a certain experiment. Approximately how many teaspoons can the beaker hold? (1 teaspoon ≈ 4.93 milliliters)

A) 1.72

B) 3.57

C) 6.78


3.Every fifteen minutes, a lab assistant can centrifuge 3 vials of blood. If she continues at this rate, how many vials of blood will she centrifuge in 4 hours?





4.A company that produces sports drinks wants to test the effects of its new electrolyte-infused water on athletic performance. One of the runners in the study drinks a bottle of the company’s new water before his 1,500-meter run and keeps track of his speed throughout the run. The figure below graphs his speed, in meters per second, on the y-axis and the distance, in meters, along the x-axis.

Based on the graph, which of the following statements is true?

A)The x-intercept of the graph represents the runner’s starting speed.

B)The runner’s slowest speed during his run occurs during the last 250 meters.

C)The runner increases his speed steadily until he reaches a distance of 1,000 meters.

D)The runner reaches his fastest speed at a distance of 750 meters.

5.What is the value of if 10a = 13?





(x − 3)2 = 16

6.Which of the following values of x satisfies the equation above?



C) 3

D) 4

Questions 7—9 refer to the following information.

The table above shows the results of a survey of a random sample of 200 high school students. The students were asked to indicate the option that best represented their summer plans.

7.If one of the females is selected at random, what is the approximate probability that the student indicated volunteering as her summer plans?





8.How many males in the survey plan to either work a summer job, relax, or volunteer over the summer?





9.The high school has a total of 1,200 students. Based on the data in the table, what is the predicted number of female students in the entire school who would indicate travel as their summer plans?




D) 25

10.Dana buys a shirt, a pair of shoes, and a purse at the store. Her bill is $81, and the shoes cost 25 percent more than the purse and shirt combined. How much were the shoes?





Questions 11 and 12 refer to the following information.

The Manor Hill Parent Teacher Association ordered some prizes as a class reward; the bill is shown below.

There is no tax on the order. The shipping charge is calculated as a percent of the order cost. The grand total is the sum of the cost of the order and the shipping charge.

11.What is the percent value used to calculate the shipping charge on the order?

A) 8%




12.The total cost of the frisbees and hats is $72, and the cost of two hats and a frisbee is $14.50. What is the cost of a frisbee?





13.The two equations in the system of equations above each form a line when graphed in the xy-plane. Which of the following statements is true regarding these two lines?

A)The lines are the same line.

B)The lines are perpendicular.

C)The lines are parallel.

D)The lines intersect at (3, 2).

14.Stephen takes out an interest-free loan from his friend. Each month he makes a payment to his friend. The amount of money that Stephen still owes his friend is given by the equation y = 1,200 − 75m, in which m is the number of months since the loan was made and y is the money, in dollars, that Stephen still owes. Which of the following best describes the meanings of the constant and coefficient in this equation?

A)The number 75 is the rate of decrease, in dollars per month, in the amount Stephen owes his friend, which started at $1,200.

B)The number 75 is the number of months it will take Stephen to pay off the loan, which was for $1,200.

C)The number 75 is the rate of increase, in dollars per month, that Stephen owes his friend for the loan, which started at $1,200.

D)The number 75 is the rate of increase, in dollars per month, of Stephens payments on the loan, which was for $1,200.

Questions 15 and 16 refer to the following information.

A catering company offers three meal options when it caters weddings. There is no additional charge for guests that indicate a food allergy, and there is no price difference among the meal selections. Children’s meals are provided at a discounted price. The company collected data on all the dish selections for the weddings that it catered over the past year.

15.What is the average cost of a child’s meal?




D) $7.90

16.Based on the table, what is the approximate probability that a guest will be an adult, if the guest orders the chicken?





17.As an object moves through a fluid, the object experiences a force known as drag. For a given projected object area in meters squared and fluid density in kilograms per meter cubed, drag can be modeled by the equation , where R is drag force in Newtons, C is the coefficient of drag, and v is velocity in meters per second. Which of the following is equivalent to two Newtons? (Assume the object is moving at a constant speed.)

A)The drag on an object with a coefficient of drag of 1 and a velocity of 2 meters per second

B)The drag on an object with a coefficient of drag of 2 and a velocity of 1 meter per second

C)The drag on an object with a coefficient of drag of 2 and a velocity of 2 meters per second

D)The drag on an object with a coefficient of drag of 4 and a velocity of 0.25 meter per hour

18.A shoe store is having a sale in which a customer receives a 30 percent discount on a second pair of shoes after purchasing the first at regular price. The tax rate of 6 percent is applied to the whole purchase. If s represents the regular price of each pair of shoes at the store, which of the following expressions gives the total amount that a customer would pay for two pairs during this sale?

A)1.06(s + 0.7s)

B)1.06(s − 0.3s)

C)1.06s + 0.7s

D)1.7s + 0.06

19.A high school class is selling barrels of popcorn to raise money. The histogram below shows the number of students that sold each quantity of barrels.

Which of the following is true?

I.The mode number of barrels sold is equal to the median number of barrels sold.

II.The median number of barrels sold is equal to the mean number of barrels sold.

III.The mode number of barrels sold is equal to the range of the number of barrels sold.

A)I only

B)III only

C)I and II only

D)II and III only

20.Sam’s Sunscreen Shop makes two kinds of sunscreen: Sunscreen A and Sunscreen B. Sunscreen A contains 8% of the active ingredient, and Sunscreen B has 12.5% of the same active ingredient. Sam wants to create a new sunscreen by blending the two sunscreens to make a new product that has a concentration of more than 10% active ingredient. The sunscreen should be in a tube containing at least 12 ounces, but no more than 16 ounces. If a represents the ounces of Sunscreen A in the blend and b represents the ounces of Sunscreen B in the blend, which of the following systems can be used to solve for all the values of a and b that fit these requirements?





Types of Pets

Percent of pets











21.The table above shows the distribution of pets at a pet shop. How many pets are at the pet shop if there are 36 more dogs than cats?



C) 60

D) 48

22.The graphs of the functions g and h are shown above. Which of the following defines h in terms of g?

A)h(x) = −g(x)

B)h(x) = |g(x)|

C)h(x) = g(x) + 3

D)h(x) = g(x − 3)

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

23.In triangle LMN above, angle NPO is congruent to angle MLN, NP = 7, and LN = 18. If the length of MN is 1 unit less than 3 times the length of NO, what is the length of side NO?





24.The membership of a sports fan group increases by 10 percent each month during the season. What type of relationship exists between the size of the fan group and the number of months since the start of the season?

A)Exponential relationship in which higher membership numbers correspond to earlier dates in the season

B)Linear relationship whose graph has a slope greater than 0

C)Exponential relationship in which higher membership numbers correspond to later dates in the season

D)Linear relationship whose graph has a slope less than 0

25.The total surface area of the triangular prism shown above can be calculated using the following formula, where x is the length of the sides of the triangular ends and y is the length of the rectangular faces.

What must the expression represent?

A)The area of one triangular end

B)The area of one rectangular face and one triangular end

C)The sum of the areas of the rectangular faces

D)The sum of the areas of the triangular ends

(3 − y)2 − (3 − y)

26.Which of the following is an equivalent form of the expression above?

A)3 − y

B)y2 − 7y + 6

C)(3 − y)(2 − y)

D)9 − y2

27.A pediatrician’s office collects data on the heights of all its patients. The scatterplot above shows the heights of the male patients seen by the office at various ages less than 10 years. A linear model best describes the data, and the line of best fit is shown. For the patient that is exactly 8 years old, which of the following best estimates the percent increase from his actual height to the height that the model predicts?






For questions 28—31, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.

1. Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the co lumns to help you fill in the circles accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly.

2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.

3. No question has a negative answer.

4. Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such cases, grid only one answer.

5. Mixed numbers such as must be gridded as 3.5 or 7/2. (If is entered into the grid, it will be interpreted as , not as .)

6. Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.

28.A certain box has a width that is 2 inches more than its length and a height that is 5 inches less than its length. If each of the two smallest faces of the box has an area of 36 square inches, what is the volume of the box?

5x − 3y = 7

2x + y = 5

29.If (x, y) is the solution to the system of equations above, what is the value of y?

Questions 30 and 31 refer to the following information.

In a certain marathon, 45 percent of the runners were men and the rest were women. The official timekeeper determined that 64 percent of the men and 68 percent of the women completed the marathon in under four hours.

30.What percent of the runners who completed the marathon in under four hours were women? (Ignore the percent symbol when entering your answer. For example, if the answer is 35.2%, enter 35.2.)

31.What percent of the runners completed the marathon in under four hours? (Ignore the percent symbol when entering your answer. For example, if the answer is 35.2%, enter 35.2.)


If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.

Do not turn to any other section in the test.